G
Good_Fella
Guest
I haven’t paid any attention to your latter posts because it’s useless. You tend to provide faulty analogies that draw awkward conclusions, create faulty generalizations concerning people’s intentions, and fail to see that language must be put into context with what people mean they are saying. Again, if I tell you that I leave for Rome next Monday, I am using the simple present tense to signify that I intend to go to Rome in the immediate future. I expect to be understood as meaning that I intend to go to Rome next Monday. Whether I do eventually leave for Rome next Monday depends on the circumstances. It’s possible that my flight will be cancelled, but that’s irrelevant to what I mean to tell you at the present moment: I will leave for Rome next Monday. The simple present tense can have a conditional future reference. If a fortune-teller tells me that I am going to die of lung cancer at some future point in my life, and I ask “How shall this be, because I don’t smoke?” I expect to be understood that I have never smoked all my life, and I don’t intend to smoke in the future. So I may add by asking “Will I die of lung cancer because of the air pollution or because of second-hand smoke?” My intention of not smoking in the future can be expressed “I am not going to smoke in the future, so how can I possibly die of lung cancer?” “Am I going to start smoking after all?” Mary finds herself in a similar situation. The angel Gabriel tells her that she is going to conceive a child. She is confused by the message because she is a virgin and intends to remain a virgin. So she asks a similar question: “How shall this be, seeing I don’t know a man?” She has no intention of having sexual relations with her husband, so she asks "By what manner will I conceive a child? Am I going to have sexual relations with my husband? This would be a strange question to ask if she had had the intention of having future relations with her husband. And if she were concerned with the time she would conceive the child in her marriage, then she would have asked “When shall this be?” without having to add “since I know not a man”. Mary expected a Messiah of paternal lineage as did all the Jews according to their Tradition, so obviously she was worried about having to forfeit her vow of virginity. She was not inquiring about the nature of an unexpected miraculous birth. She must have wondered how God could so easily dismiss her vow in like manner of Judith. Luke 1:34 clearly reveals that Mary was Ever-Virgin and, as I have shown, we can infer that she had made a prior vow of chastity. PC, your faulty reasoning has resulted from two errors on your part: First, you erroneously assumed that Mary expected a Messiah of maternal lineage. Second, you isolated the clause “seeing I know not a man” which must be regarded in connection with the other part of the sentence “How shall this be?” By connecting the two clauses we understand what Luke means by the declaration “I know not a man”. The present tense verb must be understood as signifying a permanent condition, not an instance of time. For some reason you fail to see or refuse to see the true meaning of Luke 1:34. That is why I consider it useless to debate with you any further. Besides, the debate is over, for you are wrong, and the Catholic Church is right. So farewell!The Perpetual Virginity of Mary simply isn’t found in the earliest history of the church. This is fact, not conjecture.
That’s right…Paul said “stick with what I have taught you”.
Not at all. I simply prefer a reading that doesn’t make wild conjecture about what Mary might have done, when the text makes no such indication of it.
Right – there is no revelation which cannot be publicly interpreted. In other words, no revelation can have meaning for one believer, and different meaning for another. There is no relative truth.
Not everything Paul taught is found in his epistles. He never wrote about the Virgin Birth, but he and the churches he addressed surely believed in this miraculous event by way of Sacred Tradition with attention drawn to the Scriptures of his time: the Old Testament of the Jewish Septuagint. None of the four gospels were being used at the time he wrote his epistles, not even Luke and Mark, which were written shortly before A.D. 70. And its unlikely everything was definitively revealed to Paul.
I agree that divine revelation cannot truly have one meaning for one particular group or person and a different meaning for another. But sadly this is the state of affairs we find in Protestantism.
Several Church Fathers taught Mary was Ever-Virgin by the time Scripture was made canon in the fourth century. It wasn’t until the 19th century with the emergence of the splintered American Fundamentalists that this doctrine was unauthoritatively rejected.
Pax vobiscum
Good Fella