S
Sultan_Of_Swing
Guest
I’ve often heard Catholic apologists talk about the ‘material sufficiency’ of the Bible, affirming that the Bible holds everything that we need, explicitly or implicitly, for our salvation. This is of course opposed to formal sufficiency, found within sola scriptura which says everything needed for our salvation is clearly and explicitly given, and no interpreter is required.
Anyway, I have two questions regarding this:
Anyway, I have two questions regarding this:
- How far back does this belief in material sufficiency go? I’ve read that Cardinal John Henry Newman and Pope Benedict XVI (then Cardinal Ratzinger) accepted it. I think Cardinal Newman is the earliest I’ve heard though. I believe this position of material sufficiency is taken by Catholic apologists in order to account for the wealth of early church fathers that seem to account for at least some degree of sufficiency found in scripture. But is a ‘material sufficiency’ view found in any of the Catholic councils, particularly Trent for example? Can we find material sufficiency in the teachings of the earlier theologians like St Thomas Aquinas?
- How does the material sufficiency view account for the canon of scripture? The Biblical canon is one of the main Catholic arguments used against sola scriptura. However, if we are to take a position of material sufficiency regarding scripture, then can’t the same argument be used against us? If the Bible contains all we need, explicitly or implicitly, for our salvation, surely we need the Biblical canon in there? If not, then doesn’t that destroy any argument against sola scriptura which uses the Biblical canon?