Mathew 18:18

[javier_29]

Did Jesus give authority to bind and loose to all disciples?

How does this square with our belief that the Church has this unique authority?

God Bless
Javier

 

[NotWorthy]

Did Jesus give authority to bind and loose to all disciples?

How does this square with our belief that the Church has this unique authority?

God Bless
Javier

No. He gave it to the Apostles (as a group) and only when acting as a group. The Apostles in turn, have handed this authority down to the Church Magisterium.

And, of course, in Matthew 16, He gave it to Peter, as the Pope, and only when acting as the Pope (in other words, not on matters that do not pertain to faith and morals).

 

[javier_29]

Verse 18:1 indicates he is speaking to his disciples and not just the Apostles.

Am I missing something?

Trying to understand…Thanks for the help.

Javier

 

[tobinatorstark]

No. He gave it to the Apostles (as a group) and only when acting as a group. The Apostles in turn, have handed this authority down to the Church Magisterium.

And, of course, in Matthew 16, He gave it to Peter, as the Pope, and only when acting as the Pope (in other words, not on matters that do not pertain to faith and morals).

I will agree with you

Ver. 18. Whatsoever you shall bind, &c. The power of binding and loosing, which in a more eminent manner was promised to St. Peter, is here promised to the other apostles and their successors, bishops and priests. (Witham) — The power of binding and loosing, conferred on St. Peter, excelled that granted to the other apostles, inasmuch as to St. Peter, who was head and pastor of the whole Church, was granted jurisdiction over the other apostles, while these received no power over each other, much less over St. Peter. (Tirinus) — Priests receive a power not only to loose, but also to bind, as St. Ambrose writeth against the Novatians, who allowed the latter, but denied the former power to priests. (Lib. i. de pœnit. chap. ii.) (Bristow)

this passage from the Haydock also agrees with you as well and explains its purpose

 

[NotWorthy]

Verse 18:1 indicates he is speaking to his disciples and not just the Apostles.

Am I missing something?

Trying to understand…Thanks for the help.

Javier

Yes, in Matthew, the Apostles are most often called disciples. Just look at the Transfiguration scene in chapter 17:

1 After six days Jesus took Peter, James, and John his brother, and led them up a high mountain by themselves… 6 When the disciples heard this, they fell prostrate and were very much afraid.