Matt 18:15-18

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So my Baptists dad and a Baptist friend have posted different responses to Matt 18:15-18.

First my dad says this
“It says 'the church”, not “The Church”. Therefore, it means the church you attend. At that time, it would have been the Hebrew Church, as His Church had not yet been established."

Then my Baptist friend says this
“This is reflective of the early days beneath Moses. Remember if there was any issue the people came to him to have him judge. He got overwhelmed and brought leaders of each tribe to do it. This is the same for any body of believers who gather.”

How can we respond to these to ideas?

For my dad I was thinking saying that his or other protestant churches deny that they have such an authority. Also that I’m unfamiliar with a “Hebrew church” and wasn’t this after Jesus states hes having a church in matt 16:18?

For my friend I’m not really sure what to say. Any help is greatly appreciated!
 
This same question – the several possible meanings of the Greek word ekklesia, translated in the NT as “church” – is being discussed on another thread in this same forum, under the title ***1 Timothy 3:15, Church meaning question. ***

A basic point to bear in mind is that ekklesia really just means “assembly.”
 
This same question – the several possible meanings of the Greek word ekklesia, translated in the NT as “church” – is being discussed on another thread in this same forum, under the title ***1 Timothy 3:15, Church meaning question. ***

A basic point to bear in mind is that ekklesia really just means “assembly.”
Thanks for that link. What can you say specifically about him saying “Hebrew church”
 
Thanks for that link. What can you say specifically about him saying “Hebrew church”
It’s the first time I’ve ever seen that expression used in this context. It doesn’t really convey any clear idea to me at all. But I’m not an NT scholar – your dad must have got it from somewhere, but I don’t know where.

Most people date the foundation of the Christian Church to Pentecost (Acts 2). Anything you say about the “Church” in connection with Jesus’s followers before the Crucifixion is always going to be controversial.
 
So my Baptists dad and a Baptist friend have posted different responses to Matt 18:15-18.

First my dad says this
“It says 'the church”, not “The Church”. Therefore, it means the church you attend. At that time, it would have been the Hebrew Church, as His Church had not yet been established."

Then my Baptist friend says this
“This is reflective of the early days beneath Moses. Remember if there was any issue the people came to him to have him judge. He got overwhelmed and brought leaders of each tribe to do it. This is the same for any body of believers who gather.”

How can we respond to these to ideas?

For my dad I was thinking saying that his or other protestant churches deny that they have such an authority. Also that I’m unfamiliar with a “Hebrew church” and wasn’t this after Jesus states hes having a church in matt 16:18?

For my friend I’m not really sure what to say. Any help is greatly appreciated!
Why Catholicism Is Preferable to Protestantism
By: Devin Rose

“My new book, The Protestant’s Dilemma, shows in a myriad of ways why Protestantism is implausible. We sifted through many arguments to boil the book down to the most essential. A few chapters didn’t make the cut but are still good enough to share. Here’s one of them.
If Protestantism is true,
There’s no way to know whether you’re assenting to divine revelation or to mere human opinion about divine revelation.
Protestants and Catholics both believe that God has revealed himself to man over the course of human history, culminating in his ultimate self-revelation in Jesus Christ. But whereas Catholics believe that Christ founded a visible Church—which subsists in the Catholic Church—and has protected its doctrines from error, Protestants reject the notion of ecclesial infallibility, maintaining that no person, church, or denomination has been preserved from error in its teachings. Which means that anyone could be wrong, and no person or institution can be trusted with speaking the truth of divine revelation without error.
Universal Fallibility
“No one is infallible.” If Protestantism has a universal belief, this is it. Luther pioneered this idea when he asserted that popes and Church councils had erred. If they had erred, it meant God had not guided them into all truth; instead, he allowed them to fall into error and, worse, to proclaim error as truth.
And so the most a Protestant can do is tentatively assent to doctrinal statements made by his church, pastor, or denomination, since those statements, being fallible, could be substantively changed at some time in the future. We see this all the time in Protestantism, most commonly when a Protestant leaves one church for another due to doctrinal disagreement, especially after his church changed its position on an issue he considered important.
Consider the question of same-sex “marriage.” Until quite recently, all Protestant denominations taught this was a contradiction in terms. But now many have modified or even completely reversed this doctrine. Those Protestants who accept this new teaching believe that the old one was wrong—an erroneous human opinion that became enshrined in their church’s statement of faith. They can do this confidently, knowing that none of their fellow church members can plausibly claim that it contradicts an irreformable dogma that was infallibly revealed by God.
Ultimately, then, a Protestant (who remains Protestant) studies the relevant sources—Scripture, history, the writings of authoritative figures in his tradition—and chooses the Protestant denomination that most aligns with his judgment. But then, they say, Catholics do the same thing: studying the sources and then choosing the Catholic Church based on their own judgment. So they see no difference in this regard.
Because Catholicism is true,
Christians can know divine revelation, as distinct from mere human opinion, because God protects it from authoritatively teaching anything that is false.
How is the Catholic’s judgment different from a Protestant’s, if at all? The difference lies in the conclusion, or finishing point, of the inquiry they make. Whereas the Protestant can ultimately submit only to his own judgment, which he knows to be fallible, the Catholic can confidently render total assent to the proclamations of the visible Church that Christ established and guides, submitting his judgments to its judgments as to Christ’s.
And so a Catholic can know divine revelation, as distinct from human opinion, by looking to the Church, which speaks with Christ’s voice and cannot lie. For a Protestant, only the Bible itself contains God’s infallibly inspired words, so he desires to assent to that. But since the Bible must be interpreted by someone, the closest he can come to assenting to biblical teaching is assenting to his own fallible interpretation of it. And assenting to yourself is no assent at all.
The Protestant’s Dilemma
If Protestantism is true, all are fallible. So the Protestant must rely on his own judgment above that of his church. And the orthodoxy of the church itself is judged against his interpretation of the Bible. Thus is becomes impossible to distinguish between what divine revelation actually is versus what a fallible human being thinks it is. This fact makes the Catholic Church, philosophically speaking, preferable to Protestantism, since God’s truth can be known—and known with certainty.”
 
So I debated back and forth a little and I mentioned "what church has the authority to excommunicate? Someone then asked me "why do I think treating them as tax collectors and gentiles is excommunicate? I then sited this from the USCCB notes on the passage

“just as the observant Jew avoided the company of Gentiles and tax collectors, so must the congregation of Christian disciples separate itself from the arrogantly sinful member who refuses to repent even when convicted of his sin by the whole church.”

He then stated this

“The two parables surrounding that one in the bible talk about forgiveness. It should then be understood that Jesus meant to treat them like Jesus would treat gentiles and tax collectors (with forgiveness) rather than how the Pharisees would have treated them. Matthew 9.10-13a: While Jesus was having dinner at Matthew’s house, many tax collectors and sinners came and ate with him and his disciples. When the Pharisees saw this, they asked his disciples, “Why does your teacher eat with tax collectors and sinners?” On hearing this, Jesus said, “It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. But go and learn what this means: ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice.’ For I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners.””

How can I respond. Please someone help
 
So I debated back and forth a little and I mentioned "what church has the authority to excommunicate? Someone then asked me "why do I think treating them as tax collectors and gentiles is excommunicate? I then sited this from the USCCB notes on the passage

“just as the observant Jew avoided the company of Gentiles and tax collectors, so must the congregation of Christian disciples separate itself from the arrogantly sinful member who refuses to repent even when convicted of his sin by the whole church.”

He then stated this

“The two parables surrounding that one in the bible talk about forgiveness. It should then be understood that Jesus meant to treat them like Jesus would treat gentiles and tax collectors (with forgiveness) rather than how the Pharisees would have treated them. Matthew 9.10-13a: While Jesus was having dinner at Matthew’s house, many tax collectors and sinners came and ate with him and his disciples. When the Pharisees saw this, they asked his disciples, “Why does your teacher eat with tax collectors and sinners?” On hearing this, Jesus said, “It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. But go and learn what this means: ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice.’ For I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners.””

How can I respond. Please someone help
Repentance, perhaps? The tax collectors and sinners who were made welcome at Jesus’ table were repentant. Only the unrepentant are excommunicated.

But I’m only guessing.
 
So here’s what I responded with.

"The parable after that passage is regarding forgiveness. The one prior is for seeking those who have wandered from the fold. Here’s some points to stress.

1 the care that the disciples must have for one another in respect to guarding each other’s faith in Jesus (Mt 18:6–7),

2 to seeking out those who have wandered from the fold (Mt 18:10–14)

3 repeated forgiving of their fellow disciples who have offended them (Mt 18:21–35).

4 But there is also the obligation to correct the sinful fellow Christian and, should one refuse to be corrected, separation from the community is demanded (Mt 18:15–18).

This also ties into guarding their faith.

If you think the bible never permitted excommunication I would encourage you to read 1 Cor 5:1-13. But bringing up excommunication is besides the point really. Lets give a modern day example of this:

Jim is a Presbyterian and Bob is a Baptist. Jim believes in abortion and works for Planned Parenthood. Bob correctly knows this is gravely sinful. Bob goes to Jim privately and tells him to stop working for PP and to renounce abortion. Jim refuses. Bob then takes 3 of his fellow Baptists to Jim to encourage him to quit and renounce abortion. Jim still refuses. Bob then wants to follow the instructions of Jesus, and wants to take Jim to the church. Well here’s a problem. Bob tries to take him to his Baptist church, but Jim refuses, as he doesn’t recognize them as an authority. He wants to go to his Presbyterian church for a decision, especially since they approve of abortion. Well we have a problem here, don’t we?

(stole this last one from the other thread discussing Tim 3:5)
 
Protestants really, really like to leave repentance out of the forgiveness formula even though it’s mentioned 58 times in the NT and included in the first sentence Christ said in his ministry.
 
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