G
Good_Fella
Guest
True, there is no reason for the evangelist to mean that Joseph and Mary had no conjugal relations until after the birth of Jesus unless he was trying to tell us that. But his concern is with the virgin birth and the time of the betrothal before the nativity to stress the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy (7,14) which he quotes in v. 23 of the same chapter.All of that is pure conjecture, as there are many other scenarios with just as much validity. The real answer is that the use of the word “until” in the Bible does not imply that everything changed afterwards, which evangelical English readers wrongly infer.
For example a parent leaving for an evening out says to a child “I want you to be good until I get home,” no way implies the parents expects the child to be as bad as he wants after the parent gets home.
The evangelist’s true meaning is that this child was not fathered by St. Joseph. That is ALL it is saying. It is NOT saying anything about their marital relations after the birth of Jesus. That is to misunderstand the meaning completely.
PAX
:heaven: