Matthew 12:40 an Idiom?

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“Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over the whole earth, until the ninth hour.”

if ‘night’ is just darkness then the first period of darkness or night was between the 6th and 9th hours.
He died and immediately it was dark all over the globe for three hours. That could be the first night, or period of darkness.
Then there was day again from the ninth hour until sunset. So you had two night times in one 24 hour day, on the first day.
Then you had the next day and night and the next day, the first day of the week when he rose again.
 
There is a similar usage where 40 days and forty nights meant 40 days, similar to the 3 days and 3 nights as 3 days.

Mat 4:2 He fasted forty days and forty nights
Mark 1:13 40 days
Luke 4:2 forty days

On Jesus death, there are at least 10 times it is mentioned that he he will rise on the 3rd day and not after 3 days and 3 nights. Technically a second after 3 days and 3 nights is the fourth day. However, all the following verses below indicate the 3rd day and not the 4th.

Mat 16:21
Mat 17:22
Mat 20:19
Luke 9:22
Luke 18:33
Luke 24:7
Luke 24:21
Luke 24:46
Acts 10:40
1 Cor 15:4

The preponderance of data supporting the 3rd day is so many that the proper conclusion that 3 days and 3 nights must refer to a figure of speech.

The clearest example is on the Walk to Emmaus, on Sunday, the 3rd day.

If however someone were to insist on the 3 days 3 nights calculation, as long as they are willing to accept a partial day as counting as a full day, the following explanation can be offered:
  1. The Jewish day starts at sundown.
  2. Jesus died on Friday 3pm thereabout. This is Day 1. Since a Jewish day starts at sundown, day 1 technically started at Thursday 6pm and ends on Friday 6pm. 1 night and 1 day checked.
  3. Friday 6pm to Sat 6 pm,2 nights 2 days checked.
  4. Sat 6 pm to sunday. 3 nights and 3 day checked.
Bingo!
 
Perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing as requested in the OP.
 
ericc,
re: “There is a similar usage where 40 days and forty nights meant 40 days, similar to the 3 days and 3 nights as 3 days. Mat 4:2 He fasted forty days and forty nights”

But how do you know that at least a part of each one of the 40 daytimes and at least a part of each one of the 40 night times didn’t take place?

re: “The preponderance of data supporting the 3rd day is so many that the proper conclusion that 3 days and 3 nights must refer to a figure of speech.”

But was it a common figure of speech? That is the issue for the purpose of this particular topic.
 
With the new year upon us, maybe there will be someone new looking in who knows of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in subsequent posts. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language such as the Messiah saying that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 nights when He knew that it would only be for 2 nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern had to have been used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.
 
ericc,
re: “The clearest example is on the Walk to Emmaus, on Sunday, the 3rd day.”

It (Luke 24:21) doesn’t just say the 3rd day - it says “the 3rd day since these things happened”. And the last thing mentioned as happening in verse 20 was the crucifixion.

Also, Mark 8:31 has the Messiah saying that He would rise after three days.
 
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