Matthew 12:40

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steve b,

re: “It’s as I’ve said before. But maybe you need to hear the explanation from a Jew…”

I don’t see where your link shows any writing from the first century or before which specifies a certain number of day times and/or a certain number of night times for a period of time where the period absolutely couldn’t have included at least a part of each one of the specified number of day times and/or at least a part of each one of the specified number of night times.
 
I don’t think the OP is making his request very clear.

OP: Can you restate your question without quoting it word for word in a way that might be easier to understand and less likely to be confused.

To me, it seems like you’re asking if there is any documentation that says that something happened for x days and x nights but happened in x-1 days and x-1 nights. Is this right?
 
rstrats said:
steve b,

re: “It’s as I’ve said before. But maybe you need to hear the explanation from a Jew…”

I don’t see where your link shows any writing from the first century or before which specifies a certain number of day times and/or a certain number of night times for a period of time where the period absolutely couldn’t have included at least a part of each one of the specified number of day times and/or at least a part of each one of the specified number of night times.
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Here’s what you began this thread with
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=10174736&postcount=1

“All Jewish holidays begin the evening before the date specified on most calendars. This is because a Jewish “day” begins and ends at sunset, rather than at midnight. If you read the story of creation in Genesis Ch. 1, you will notice that it says, “And there was evening, and there was morning, one day.” From this, we infer that a day begins with evening, that is, sunset” http://www.jewfaq.org/holiday0.htm

Here’s from the Jewish encyclopedia for “Day” http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/search?utf8=%E2%9C%93&keywords=day&commit=search

You seem to not like the answer you’re getting for when a day begins and ends according to Jewish understanding.

These folks ought to know their own customs and understandings, especially when you see agreement over many sources.
 
bzkoss236,

re: “To me, it seems like you’re asking if there is any documentation [from the first century or before] that says that something happened for x days and [/or] x nights but [actually] happened in x-1 days and [/or] x-1 nights. Is this right?”

That is correct.
 
steve b,

re: “You seem to not like the answer you’re getting for when a day begins and ends according to Jewish understanding.”

Where have I said that I disagree as to when a day begins and ends according to Jewish understanding?
 
rstrats said:
bzkoss236,

re: “To me, it seems like you’re asking if there is any documentation [from the first century or before] that says that something happened for x days and [/or] x nights but [actually] happened in x-1 days and [/or] x-1 nights. Is this right?”

That is correct.
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There is little documentation, as far as I know, from around that time, but I doubt there would be any making a statement as such, because saying something happened for a period which it didn’t actually happen is nonsensical and would be a lie. When the documents say 3 days and 3 nights, or 3 days and 2 nights, it doesn’t necessarily mean that it lasted all day or all night. If it happened during part of the day until what they considered night, that would be considered 1 day.
 
bzkoss236,

re: “There is little documentation, as far as I know, from around that time…”

A little would be fine.

re: “…but I doubt there would be any making a statement as such, because saying something happened for a period which it didn’t actually happen is nonsensical…”

But that is what the 6th day crucifixion adherents assert - that 3 nights actually means 2 nights.
 
rstrats said:
bzkoss236,

re: “There is little documentation, as far as I know, from around that time…”

A little would be fine.

re: “…but I doubt there would be any making a statement as such, because saying something happened for a period which it didn’t actually happen is nonsensical…”

But that is what the 6th day crucifixion adherents assert - that 3 nights actually means 2 nights.
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If you don’t mind my asking, are you saying Matthew means that Jesus was saying he would be exactly 72 hours in his burial tomb? Or do you think it possible he meant less than 72 hours?
 
spockrates,

re: “If you don’t mind my asking…”

don’t mind at all.

re: “…are you saying Matthew means that Jesus was saying he would be exactly 72 hours in his burial tomb?”

No

re: “Or do you think it possible he meant less than 72 hours?”

Not only possible, but based on Luke 24:21, necessary.
 
rstrats said:
spockrates,

re: “If you don’t mind my asking…”

don’t mind at all.

re: “…are you saying Matthew means that Jesus was saying he would be exactly 72 hours in his burial tomb?”

No

re: “Or do you think it possible he meant less than 72 hours?”

Not only possible, but based on Luke 24:21, necessary.
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Yes, I agree. I wonder, then if this creates any difficulties for Matthew’s recollection of Jesus’ prediction.
 
steve b,

re: "(D) The Meaning of “Three Days and Three Nights” in Jewish Reckoning "

I don’t see where your link shows any writing from the first century or before which specifies a certain number of day times and/or a certain number of night times for a period of time where the period absolutely couldn’t have included at least a part of each one of the specified number of day times and/or at least a part of each one of the specified number of night times.
 
I should also add: “…and who thinks that the ‘heart of the earth’ is referring to the tomb.”
 
Since it’s been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.
 
As we’re well into the new year, perhaps there will be someone new looking in who knows of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language such as the Messiah saying that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 nights when He knew that it would only be for 2 nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern had to have been used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.
 
It appears that there are no 6th day of the week crucifixion advocates visiting this site who think that Matthew 12:40 is employing common idiomatic language of the time.
 
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