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Debbie_Kono
Guest
Jesus Christ said the world would hate us…I’m simply repeating what He said. Do you not believe what He said Michael?
I really agree with you here.Church declared centuries later about Mathew 16:19. If only one bible writer would come into agreement with the meaning of keys to be the beginnings of a papal government where a succession of Bishops
How about Numbers chapters 12, 14 & 16? What happens to the people of God who buck up against Moses? Do you agree that Moses was a type of pope for the people?Scripture always validates scripture.
(> Rev. 3:7)(Rev. 1:17-18)
"And when I had seen Him, I fell at His feet as dead.
“And he laid his right hand upon me, saying, 'Fear not. I am the First and the Last, and alive, and was dead, and behold I am living for ever and ever, and have the keys of death and of hell.”
That would be the keys to the kingdom, right there. His Kingdom includes all things, even death (which He has defeated) and Hell (ditto, as in the Apostles’ Creed). The gates of Hell cannot stand against the Church, because He’s the victor and He’s got its keys. He is the Son of David Who reigns forever."And write to the angel of the church of Philadelphia:
“These things are said by the Holy One and the true one, He Who holds the key of David, He Who opens, and none shuts; He Who shuts and none opens.”
Eliakim was not of the house of David. He wasn’t becoming king. (And incidentally, there’s a fair number of times that the 2nd Book of Kings mentions both Eliakim and Shebna.) His possession of the king’s keys was for work purposes, just like Shebna’s had been."And it shall come to pass on that day, that I will call my servant, Eliakim the son of Hilkiah. and I will clothe him with your robe, and will strengthen him with your belt, and I will give your power into his hand. And he shall be as a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah.
“And I will lay the key of the house of David upon his shoulder. And he shall open, and none shall shut; and he shall shut, and none shall open.”
Then He mentions also another honor. “And I also will give you the keys of the heavens.”
But what is this “And I also will give you”?
‘As the Father has given you to know me, so will I also give you.’
And He said not, “I will entreat the Father” (although the manifestation of His authority was great, and the largeness of the gift unspeakable), but, “I will give you.”
What do You give? Tell me.
“The keys of the heavens, that whatsoever you shall bind on earth, shall be bound in Heaven, and whatsoever you shall loose on earth, shall be loosed in Heaven.”
… when He says, “I will give you” … do you see how He, His own self, leads Peter on to high thoughts of Him, and reveals Himself, and implies that He is Son of God by these two promises? For those things which are peculiar to God alone, (both to absolve sins, and to make the Church incapable of overthrow in such assailing waves, and to exhibit a man who is a fisher more solid than any rock, while all the world is at war with him), these He promises Himself to give; as the Father, speaking to Jeremiah, said, He would make him as “a brazen pillar, and as a wall.” (Jeremiah 1:18) But him to one nation only, this man in every part of the world.
I would inquire, then, of those who desire to lessen the dignity of the Son, which manner of gifts were greater: those which the Father gave to Peter, or those which the Son gave him?
For the Father gave to Peter the revelation of the Son; but the Son gave him to sow that of the Father and that of Himself in every part of the world; and to a mortal man He entrusted the authority over all things in Heaven, giving him the keys; who extended the church to every part of the world, and declared it to be stronger than heaven. “For heaven and earth shall pass away, but my word shall not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35)
How then is He less, who has given such gifts, has effected such things?
And these things I say, not dividing the works of Father and Son (“for all things are made by Him, and without Him was nothing made which was made”): but bridling the shameless tongue of them that dare so to speak.
But see, throughout all, His authority: “I say to you, You are Peter.” “I will build the Church.” “I will give you the keys of Heaven.”
Around 180 Irenaeus of Lyons wrote that
Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching in Rome and laying the foundation of the Church. After their departure, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter. Luke also, the companion of Paul, recorded in a book the Gospel preached by him. Afterwards John, the disciple of the Lord, who also had leaned upon his breast, did himself publish a Gospel during his residence at Ephesus in Asia. (Against Heresies 3:1:1)![]()
You keep saying this, and we keep showing you the office Jesus installed Peter in, at Mt 16.The concept of Pope is found no where in holy scripture.
The thing is… @tgGodsway isn’t challenging it. He even mentions that “scripture interprets scripture”, and when we demonstrate that Mt 16:19 is attested to by Isaiah 22:22, he refuses to respond.I am sure he knows this verse.
Catholics just keep quoting that verse and the poster in question challenges it for all the reasons mentioned.
Keep in mind that it is not the origin of the post. He asked about Mt 16:18, and we keep pointing to the implications of Jesus’ words in Mt 16:19 … and, knowing our responses, he refuses to address them. It’s like… oh… he’s avoiding them because he knows they refute his claim that Peter never received any office!( So just quoting or referring to it again doesn’t do much, considering that was the origin of the post)
From my understanding whether or not Rome uses the Aramaic text, Jesus most likely spoke it.I’ve been educating myself to this subject from the standpoint of Greek scholars. Gateway.com has a site that has a compelling argument. With the understanding that Rome uses the Aramaic text for Matthew 16:18 because the Aramaic word for Peter and Rock is the same word. KE’PHA This solves the problem for them. But the Aramaic text has its own set of problems I will bring up later.
The Greek text of Matt. 16:18 uses two separate and different words in the passage. Petros, the name given to the Apostle, Petra, the word used for rock. Rome says that “Peter” Petros is merely the masculine form of the feminine noun Petra and therefore means the same thing.
But Classic Greek authors (before the New Testament was written) treat the words Petros and Petra as two different words. According to Liddell and Scott writers of the English Lexicon, said "Petros is “distinct from Petra” E. Heracl. 1002 says it means “panta kinesai petron” “Leaves no stone unturned” c. pl.Lg.843 X HG 3.520 “Petrous epekulindoun” “they rolled down stones.”
Note: Petros, a stone, smaller moveable stone (heracletes uses it in the phrase “leave no stone unturned.” So a Petros is a stone which can be turned over, hence a moveable stone. Petra, a large massive rock, a large boulder, a foundation stone.
If Jesus was referring the second word to Simon Peter he could have said, “epi tauto to petro” (using the masculine gender in the dative case) the same word as “Petros.” But what he said was “Epi taute te petra” using Petra, a different word.
This matters in the debate.