Matthew 16:28

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DylanO

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I have a question in regards to the Gospel of Matthew 16:28. I had been reading a forum and an atheist on there used this verse as “proof” that Jesus will not return because it states that “there are some of them that stand here, that shall not taste death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.” Could someone provide an explanation of this verse?

Thanks in advance.
 
Jesus is talking about His rule over the kingdom/world after His resurrection.

He proposed another parable to them. "The kingdom of heaven may be likened to a man who sowed good seed in his field. (Mat 13:24)

"He who sows good seed is the Son of Man,the field is the world (Mat 13:37-38a)

After His resurrection

Then Jesus said to them, “Do not be afraid. Go tell my brothers to go to Galilee, and there they will see me.” (Mat 28:10)

Then Jesus approached and said to them, "All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me. (Mat 28:18)

For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (1 Cor 15:25)

Peace,

Ryan 🙂
 
In A Commentary on the New Testament, published by the Catholic Biblical Association in 1942, pages 119-120, says, in part:
28. *… *The Son of Man coming in his kingdom: cf. the variant expressions in Mark and Luke. It is not certain what this refers to. Some of the Apostles will see it; others will be dead before that time. It cannot refer to Christ’s coming at the end of the world when all the Apostles will long since have been dead. Nor can it refer to some event in the near future, such as the Transfiguration, Resurrection or Ascension. For all of the Apostles lived to see these events, which moreover do not contain the element of retribution demanded by the context. It probably refers to the destruction of Jerusalem [in A.D. 70] in which Christ vindicated His honor by punishing the city that slew Him. The destruction of Jerusalem is a type of the destruction of the world on the last day; as such, the expressions which refer properly to the one are also used analogously of the other. See Commentary on [Matthew] 24, 15-35.
 
Some interpret it to mean that it was fulfilled in the three disciples, when He was transfigured in the mount, and they saw the joys of the eternal inheritance and Him shining in His radiance, just like when all the saints will some day. But I go with a different interpretation, even though that is a position that is held by some heavy weights. Theophylact says this
Here He is hinting at Peter, James and John, whom He took with Him on the mountain and showed them His kingdom, that is, the future condition in which He would come and both He and the righteous would be radiant. He is saying, therefore, “Some of you here shall not die until you have seen Me transfigured.” See, then, that it is those who stand firm in goodness who see Jesus radiantly transfigured, and they are ever advancing in faith and in the commandments.
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But I agree with St. Gregory on this one, he says…
by the kingdom of God is meant the present Church, and because some of His disciples were to live so long in the body as to behold the Church of God built up and raised against the glory of this world, this comfortable promise is given them,
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Todd_Easton said:
In A Commentary on the New Testament, published by the Catholic Biblical Association in 1942, pages 119-120, says, in part:
28. *… *The Son of Man coming in his kingdom: cf. the variant expressions in Mark and Luke. It is not certain what this refers to. Some of the Apostles will see it; others will be dead before that time. It cannot refer to Christ’s coming at the end of the world when all the Apostles will long since have been dead. Nor can it refer to some event in the near future, such as the Transfiguration, Resurrection or Ascension. For all of the Apostles lived to see these events, which moreover do not contain the element of retribution demanded by the context. It probably refers to the destruction of Jerusalem [in A.D. 70] in which Christ vindicated His honor by punishing the city that slew Him. The destruction of Jerusalem is a type of the destruction of the world on the last day; as such, the expressions which refer properly to the one are also used analogously of the other. See Commentary on [Matthew] 24, 15-35.
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Hey Todd do you have anything to say about it yourself?
 
bible_man said:
Hey Todd do you have anything to say about it yourself?
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Thank you for asking. No, I don’t have a personal interpretation of this particular verse.

Be that as it may, instead of hearing the “twist” on Sacred Scripture of an “ignorant and unstable” person like myself, I thought the original questioner might like to hear the more expert opinions of respected Bible scholars, such as are expressed in A Commentary on the New Testament, published by the Catholic Biblical Association, which bears a Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur from Church authorities.
 
Todd Easton
Thank you for asking. No, I don’t have a personal interpretation of this particular verse.
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Be that as it may, instead of hearing the “twist” on Sacred Scripture of an “ignorant and unstable” person like myself, I thought the original questioner might like to hear the more expert opinions of respected Bible scholars, such as are expressed in A Commentary on the New Testament, published by the Catholic Biblical Association, which bears a Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur from Church authorities.
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Great answer! I remember a time when friends and family members used to ask me how “I” understood what this or that passage or doctrine meant, and I used to give “my” interpretation. Now it is so good when they ask such questions that I can tell them not what “I” think it means but what “the Church” teaches about it. I no longer have to be “a pope”! What a relief to no longer try to provide a counterfeit authority to interpreting Scripture!
 
Todd_Easton said:
Thank you for asking. No, I don’t have a personal interpretation of this particular verse.

Be that as it may, instead of hearing the “twist” on Sacred Scripture of an “ignorant and unstable” person like myself, I thought the original questioner might like to hear the more expert opinions of respected Bible scholars, such as are expressed in A Commentary on the New Testament, published by the Catholic Biblical Association, which bears a Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur from Church authorities.
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You’re too hard on yourself.
 
So this verse is referring to the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70?
 
DylanO said:
So this verse is referring to the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70?
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not at all - this refers to reincarnation,which to some Jews and many others was the only possible way to forgiveness and final redemption - there are also other references to reincarnation - twinc
 
The same topic was being discussed on this thead.

Oh, by the way, the Blessed Virgin Mary is still alive and has never tasted death.
 
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