In fact Jesus says that flesh and blood has not revealed that truth to Peter, which means that Peter has reached a deeper understanding of that truth.
And that is the crux of my dilemma. I don’t know how many times I need to repeat myself before people understood where I’m coming from. Jesus said that flesh and blood has not revealed that truth to Peter, but literally a few chapters down Peter was around a bunch of fleshes and blood who declared Jesus as the Son of God. Everyone keeps giving me circular answers and right now it’s getting
very frustrating.
The Canaanite never sayed to Jesus that He was the Son of God;
This is not what I said. I said that Jesus praised people’s faith directly by saying something akin to “Great is your faith!”. If, as you stated earlier, that the Lord is praising Peter’s faith, then why not just point that out? Right now, it seems that He is praising Peter’s
knowledge. Faith isn’t revealed; it is a gift given by God. What is revealed is knowledge; information; an understanding. So when the Lord says that “flesh and blood has not
revealed this to you but my Father in heaven”, I’m strongly inclined to understand this as a revelation of understanding or knowledge. If this isn’t the traditional understanding of the Church, then I would really love to be referred to it. A writing by a Church Father. A document from an ecumenical council. A pontifical letter. Something.
Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”
Here, it could be argued that St. Philip did understand Jesus to be God but he didn’t understand the oneness of the triune God (And who can blame him? It’s a tough cookie to crack.) This has, as far as I can tell, nothing to do with St. Philip’s incomprehension that the Lord is God. Heck, even St. Thomas the Doubter made the famous declaration after seeing the Risen Lord. I find it nearly impossible for St. Philip to not understand that Jesus is God at that point.
It is reasonable to assume that Philip was on the boat together with the other apostoles, nevertheless, he had not yet understood what the expression “Son of God” really meant.
This we can agree on. If that is the case, what then could they have meant by Son of God? If it’s a Herculean figure, wouldn’t that fall under blasphemy (which the Pharisees declared as such)? However, the Lord Himself said that He had not come to abolish the law and the prophets so clearly it couldn’t be that somehow God the Father sired the Son à la Zeus’ escapades. Again, any encyclicals or writings from the Church Fathers regarding this point would be appreciated.