What is meant by “predestinaton” in Catholic terms, is that God knows our choices in advance. While He wishes all to go to Heaven, He allows for our freewill.Is this verse proof that double predestination that all/most/some protestants believe in is obviously wrong or does it have a different meaning?
Matthew19:14 Even so it is not the will of your Father, who is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.
Double predestination means that God predestines some souls to heaven and some to hell from eternity. And no matter what they do, they can’t change their fate.Is this verse proof that double predestination that all/most/some protestants believe in is obviously wrong or does it have a different meaning?
Matthew19:14 Even so it is not the will of your Father, who is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.
Hi, Nelka!Is this verse proof that double predestination that all/most/some protestants believe in is obviously wrong or does it have a different meaning?
Matthew19:14 Even so it is not the will of your Father, who is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.
catholic.com/magazine/print-edition/predestined-for-freedomHi, Nelka!
…I think that the wording has been changed on this particular version of the Bible… the understanding of St. Matthew 19:14 is that Heaven is composed of those who, as young children, trust in God’s Word and Will–they have thirst for knowledge, they seek understanding and they trust those in Authority.
…yet, there are many other Biblical passages that debunk predestination, double or otherwise, where it is implied that God “predestines” some to Salvation and others to damnation.
Maran atha!
Angel
Hi!catholic.com/magazine/print-edition/predestined-for-freedom
*'For Catholics, when God “establishes his eternal plan of ‘predestination,’ he includes in it each person’s free response to his grace” (CCC 600). Thus, anyone who is finally saved will have been predestined by God because it was God’s predestined plan and God’s grace that went before him and enabled him to be saved.
However, this does not mean that God has predestined anyone for hell. Indeed, the Bible cannot be any plainer than to say God is, “not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance” (2 Pt 3:9). God wills all to be saved. To be damned, a person must willfully reject God’s “predestined plan” for his salvation (cf. CCC 2037): simple enough.’*
‘Double-predestination’ as opposed to ‘predestination’ can however be refuted in Scripture, once such example, being where St. Paul tells us that God wishes all men to be saved.
Actually, predestination does not imply “from all time”. As is clear from the episode of Pharoa and others who have tested God’s patience, predestination occurs at the time that the individual has committed the “last straw” which breaks the camel’s back, as the saying goes.Hi!
…yet, in that sense there’s no predestination of a few over the rest; rather, God’s Salvific Plan predestines all to Salvation (St. John 3:14-21 & Ezekiel 18); the fact remains that man’s freewill allows him to choose Life (Deuteronomy 30:19) or death.
The fact that God is Omnipresent and thus Knows and Exists in an Eternal Now (man’s perspective of past, present, and future is Experienced by God as NOW) He actually Knows *who *is Saved–not that He whimsically predestines some to be Saved.
Maran atha!
Angel
One such actual example of predestination, in terms of the individual sense, as opposed to the general sense of everyone is predestined to be saved (in the examples), would be The Immaculate Conception. It has been understood though, that because He is the Omnipotent, Eternal Presence, He knew, before Mary’s existence, that she would say “yes”, later on in life; so her Immaculate Conception was preparatory, for her forthcoming, “yes”.Actually, predestination does not imply “from all time”. As is clear from the episode of Pharoa and others who have tested God’s patience, predestination occurs at the time that the individual has committed the “last straw” which breaks the camel’s back, as the saying goes.
In other words, a person who has proven, by his actions, that he wants nothing to do with God, is predestined to destruction at the point that he exceeds his limit of opportunities for salvation:
Exodus 9:11 Because of the boils the magicians could not stand in Moses’ presence, for there were boils on the magicians as well as on the rest of the Egyptians. 12 But the Lord hardened Pharaoh’s heart, and he would not listen to them, just as the Lord had said to Moses.
2 Thessalonians 2:11 Therefore, God is sending them a deceiving power so that they may believe the lie, 12 that all who have not believed the truth but have approved wrongdoing may be condemned.
This is the point at which one is “predestined” to destruction. Others are predestined to salvation when they continue in well doing:
Romans 2:
7 eternal life to those who seek glory, honor, and immortality through perseverance in good works,
This, predestination, may occur during one’s lifetime.
2 Timothy 4:8
New American Bible (Revised Edition)
From now on the crown of righteousness awaits me, which the Lord, the just judge, will award to me on that day, and not only to me, but to all who have longed for his appearance.
God wills that all will be saved. But that does not mean that God predestines all to be saved. If it did, then that would mean that God is not omnipotent, since many are not saved. Example: Pharao
Hi, De Maria!Actually, predestination does not imply “from all time”. As is clear from the episode of Pharoa and others who have tested God’s patience, predestination occurs at the time that the individual has committed the “last straw” which breaks the camel’s back, as the saying goes.
In other words, a person who has proven, by his actions, that he wants nothing to do with God, is predestined to destruction at the point that he exceeds his limit of opportunities for salvation:
Exodus 9:11 Because of the boils the magicians could not stand in Moses’ presence, for there were boils on the magicians as well as on the rest of the Egyptians. 12 But the Lord hardened Pharaoh’s heart, and he would not listen to them, just as the Lord had said to Moses.
2 Thessalonians 2:11 Therefore, God is sending them a deceiving power so that they may believe the lie, 12 that all who have not believed the truth but have approved wrongdoing may be condemned.
This is the point at which one is “predestined” to destruction. Others are predestined to salvation when they continue in well doing:
Romans 2:
7 eternal life to those who seek glory, honor, and immortality through perseverance in good works,
This, predestination, may occur during one’s lifetime.
2 Timothy 4:8
New American Bible (Revised Edition)
From now on the crown of righteousness awaits me, which the Lord, the just judge, will award to me on that day, and not only to me, but to all who have longed for his appearance.
God wills that all will be saved. But that does not mean that God predestines all to be saved. If it did, then that would mean that God is not omnipotent, since many are not saved. Example: Pharao
Hi!One such actual example of predestination, in terms of the individual sense, as opposed to the general sense of everyone is predestined to be saved (in the examples), would be The Immaculate Conception. It has been understood though, that because He is the Omnipotent, Eternal Presence, He knew, before Mary’s existence, that she would say “yes”, later on in life; so her Immaculate Conception was preparatory, for her forthcoming, “yes”.
So it goes like this (so far):
…second to that last counter, we have the Immaculate Conception example, which shows, that because God knows our choices in advance of us having made them, we can say that some are ‘predestined’.
- Scripture says all are willed to be saved, except by our own participation can we not be; meaning, all are predestined, but not all comply.
- Argument: well then the word ‘predestined’ loses any real meaning.
- Then the counter: if some have not participated in the saving action of God, then despite having been predestined, are not in fact ‘predestined’, because of that reason.
My point.One such actual example of predestination, in terms of the individual sense, as opposed to the general sense of everyone is predestined to be saved (in the examples), would be The Immaculate Conception. It has been understood though, that because He is the Omnipotent, Eternal Presence, He knew, before Mary’s existence, that she would say “yes”, later on in life; so her Immaculate Conception was preparatory, for her forthcoming, “yes”.
So it goes like this (so far):
- Scripture says all are willed to be saved, except by our own participation can we not be; meaning, all are predestined, but not all comply.
- Argument: well then the word ‘predestined’ loses any real meaning.
Again, my point.
- Then the counter: if some have not participated in the saving action of God, then despite having been predestined, are not in fact ‘predestined’, because of that reason.
Did Mary have free will? Yes or no. If she had free will, she was not yet predestined. There remains the possibility that she may have said, “no”. If there was not such possibility, then she did not have free will.…second to that last counter, we have the Immaculate Conception example, which shows, that because God knows our choices in advance of us having made them, we can say that some are ‘predestined’.
Yep. I think we’re tracking very closely. Good to hear from you!Hi, De Maria!
…I think we are treading the same water–just missing each other by seconds and degrees.
Maran atha!
Angel
So, we have ‘predestination’ as a general term, to mean that all are predestined, only, and only, in accordance with our participation, which God knows in advance; therefore, when we speak of predestination, what this actually determines, is that there are signs, that some people seem to be certain of going to Heaven, amongst the rest, whose souls may or may not be in such a holy state. Despite that God desires for all to be saved. This sounds like a very scenic way of saying exactly what the Catechism says.Did Mary have free will? Yes or no. If she had free will, she was not yet predestined. There remains the possibility that she may have said, “no”. If there was not such possibility, then she did not have free will.
She participated in the saving action of God, of her own free will. After that, she was predestined by God to be saved. He locked her in, because it would not be meet and right for the Mother of His Son to be condemned to hell.
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p2.htm
*'II. . . .BORN OF THE VIRGIN MARY
487 What the Catholic faith believes about Mary is based on what it believes about Christ, and what it teaches about Mary illumines in turn its faith in Christ.*…
That is all true. But, does any of that say that God forced Mary to give her “fiat”?
Read this and apply it in her case:
*Luke 7:36-50New American Bible (Revised Edition) (NABRE)
36 A Pharisee invited him to dine with him, and he entered the Pharisee’s house and reclined at table.[a] 37 Now there was a sinful woman in the city who learned that he was at table in the house of the Pharisee. Bringing an alabaster flask of ointment, 38 she stood behind him at his feet weeping and began to bathe his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them, and anointed them with the ointment. 39 When the Pharisee who had invited him saw this he said to himself, “If this man were a prophet, he would know who and what sort of woman this is who is touching him, that she is a sinner.” 40 Jesus said to him in reply, “Simon, I have something to say to you.” “Tell me, teacher,” he said. 41 “Two people were in debt to a certain creditor; one owed five hundred days’ wages** and the other owed fifty. 42 Since they were unable to repay the debt, he forgave it for both. Which of them will love him more?” 43 Simon said in reply, “The one, I suppose, whose larger debt was forgiven.” He said to him, “You have judged rightly.” 44 Then he turned to the woman and said to Simon, “Do you see this woman? When I entered your house, you did not give me water for my feet, but she has bathed them with her tears and wiped them with her hair. 45 You did not give me a kiss, but she has not ceased kissing my feet since the time I entered. 46 You did not anoint my head with oil, but she anointed my feet with ointment. 47 So I tell you, her many sins have been forgiven; hence, she has shown great love.[c] But the one to whom little is forgiven, loves little.” 48 He said to her, “Your sins are forgiven.” 49 The others at table said to themselves, “Who is this who even forgives sins?” 50 But he said to the woman, “Your faith has saved you; go in peace.”***
Now, Mary is sinless, but she was lavished with gifts of grace. Who loves God more, she who is lavished with grace or she who is not?
Mary loves God freely.
That is all true. But, does any of that say that God forced Mary to give her “fiat”?
Read this and apply it in her case:
*Luke 7:36-50New American Bible (Revised Edition) (NABRE)
36 A Pharisee invited him to dine with him, and he entered the Pharisee’s house and reclined at table.[a] 37 Now there was a sinful woman in the city who learned that he was at table in the house of the Pharisee. Bringing an alabaster flask of ointment, 38 she stood behind him at his feet weeping and began to bathe his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them, and anointed them with the ointment. 39 When the Pharisee who had invited him saw this he said to himself, “If this man were a prophet, he would know who and what sort of woman this is who is touching him, that she is a sinner.” 40 Jesus said to him in reply, “Simon, I have something to say to you.” “Tell me, teacher,” he said. 41 “Two people were in debt to a certain creditor; one owed five hundred days’ wages** and the other owed fifty. 42 Since they were unable to repay the debt, he forgave it for both. Which of them will love him more?” 43 Simon said in reply, “The one, I suppose, whose larger debt was forgiven.” He said to him, “You have judged rightly.” 44 Then he turned to the woman and said to Simon, “Do you see this woman? When I entered your house, you did not give me water for my feet, but she has bathed them with her tears and wiped them with her hair. 45 You did not give me a kiss, but she has not ceased kissing my feet since the time I entered. 46 You did not anoint my head with oil, but she anointed my feet with ointment. 47 So I tell you, her many sins have been forgiven; hence, she has shown great love.[c] But the one to whom little is forgiven, loves little.” 48 He said to her, “Your sins are forgiven.” 49 The others at table said to themselves, “Who is this who even forgives sins?” 50 But he said to the woman, “Your faith has saved you; go in peace.”***
Now, Mary is sinless, but she was lavished with gifts of grace. Who loves God more, she who is lavished with grace or she who is not?
Mary loves God freely.
Hi Mary.I hope you enjoyed a blessed Easter. With all due respect, please read the dialogue between us, again. No one is saying that Mary was not free to choose. Being prepared is not the same as being forced to do something.
God bless.
all true. But, does any of that say that God forced Mary to give her “fiat”?
Read this and apply it in her case:
*Luke 7:36-50New American Bible (Revised Edition) (NABRE)
36 A Pharisee invited him to dine with him, and he entered the Pharisee’s house and reclined at table.[a] 37 Now there was a sinful woman in the city who learned that he was at table in the house of the Pharisee. Bringing an alabaster flask of ointment, 38 she stood behind him at his feet weeping and began to bathe his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them, and anointed them with the ointment. 39 When the Pharisee who had invited him saw this he said to himself, “If this man were a prophet, he would know who and what sort of woman this is who is touching him, that she is a sinner.” 40 Jesus said to him in reply, “Simon, I have something to say to you.” “Tell me, teacher,” he said. 41 “Two people were in debt to a certain creditor; one owed five hundred days’ wages** and the other owed fifty. 42 Since they were unable to repay the debt, he forgave it for both. Which of them will love him more?” 43 Simon said in reply, “The one, I suppose, whose larger debt was forgiven.” He said to him, “You have judged rightly.” 44 Then he turned to the woman and said to Simon, “Do you see this woman? When I entered your house, you did not give me water for my feet, but she has bathed them with her tears and wiped them with her hair. 45 You did not give me a kiss, but she has not ceased kissing my feet since the time I entered. 46 You did not anoint my head with oil, but she anointed my feet with ointment. 47 So I tell you, her many sins have been forgiven; hence, she has shown great love.[c] But the one to whom little is forgiven, loves little.” 48 He said to her, “Your sins are forgiven.” 49 The others at table said to themselves, “Who is this who even forgives sins?” 50 But he said to the woman, “Your faith has saved you; go in peace.”***
Now, Mary is sinless, but she was lavished with gifts of grace. Who loves God more, she who is lavished with grace or she who is not?
Mary loves God freely.
To say, also, that you’ve left out very important parts of #15 and taken only a snippet, and then followed with a supposition - that to be prepared, is to not be free?!![]()
If you read the whole of post #15, you will see that being prepared, “full of grace”, makes one truly free, and able to love God, more, not less. I think the issue here, is the over-emphasis on the subject of sin. Sin takes away our choices, not adds to them. Sin is an obstacle to our spiritual progression. Our Lady had no sin and therefore was able to make good choices.
This does not mean that Mary could not weigh up danger, during her “fiat”; yet, you will read, the element that seemingly caused the main obstacle for her, was the knowledge that she could give birth whilst remaining a Virgin: “But how can this come about, since I am a Virgin?”. The danger, could have been that she had so much humility, maybe she would have thought herself unworthy! But instead, she answered confidently, in trustful obedience: perfect humility.
To say that, being prepared with grace for a question-to-happen at some point in time, somehow neglects freewill, is judging the concept of freewill from an erroneous starting point.
To come back to this topic. First, sorry, I called you “Mary”. I mistakenly went by the username.God wills that all will be saved. But that does not mean that God predestines all to be saved. If it did, then that would mean that God is not omnipotent, since many are not saved. Example: Pharao