A
asteroid
Guest
I’m just wondering about Mt 23:8, an important verse when setting verse 9 in context.
The verse reads something like “Call no man Rabbi for you have one master/teacher …”
I’ve been wondering about the Greek used for master/teacher. The Textus Receptus and the Byzantine Majority text says kathegetes (master). However the Westcott-Hort text, Tischendorf and the Nestle-Aland texts say didaskolos (teacher).
My Greek New Testament, from the late 80s and from Aland says didaskolos.
The surprising thing is that it gives no alternate readings at all.
So questions:
Why no alternative readings if there obviously are alternate readings?
When and why did scholars turn from using kathegetes here to using didaskolos?
It’s important. Catholic blurb on the “call no man father” verse often points to the use of “teacher” in this verse and then sees the same Greek word in places where people are called teacher in the church.
But if someone is going to turn round and say “Hey, the word is actually kathegetes” what am I meant to do?
I know that it doesn’t actually make much difference to the validity of Catholic practice - as that doesn’t fall on that one word and is related to the full context of the passage and other passages. But it would be nice to be clear in my head about it.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
One good thing though. I found this site biblos.com/ which is fantastic for translation/language cross references (except that it doesn’t contain Catholic translations or the disputed OT books)
The verse reads something like “Call no man Rabbi for you have one master/teacher …”
I’ve been wondering about the Greek used for master/teacher. The Textus Receptus and the Byzantine Majority text says kathegetes (master). However the Westcott-Hort text, Tischendorf and the Nestle-Aland texts say didaskolos (teacher).
My Greek New Testament, from the late 80s and from Aland says didaskolos.
The surprising thing is that it gives no alternate readings at all.
So questions:
Why no alternative readings if there obviously are alternate readings?
When and why did scholars turn from using kathegetes here to using didaskolos?
It’s important. Catholic blurb on the “call no man father” verse often points to the use of “teacher” in this verse and then sees the same Greek word in places where people are called teacher in the church.
But if someone is going to turn round and say “Hey, the word is actually kathegetes” what am I meant to do?
I know that it doesn’t actually make much difference to the validity of Catholic practice - as that doesn’t fall on that one word and is related to the full context of the passage and other passages. But it would be nice to be clear in my head about it.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
One good thing though. I found this site biblos.com/ which is fantastic for translation/language cross references (except that it doesn’t contain Catholic translations or the disputed OT books)