How is it possible Jesus doesn’t know the time of the second coming doesn’t he have all knowledge from his divinity?
<36> "But about that day and hour no one knows, neither the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.”
First, from a mere fact and standpoint, the Julian Calendar, the Gregorian Calendar, and other times/dates shifted through history. I’d say that is trouble enough for Him to give us a timeline, when we continue to keep changing the Calendar. So He just gave up on telling us
Okay, laughter and humor aside.
But your question raises much along the same reasoning if God is perfect and all loving (never errors; sinless), why did/does it sound like He made a mistake/error bringing about the flood during Noah’s time?
When Christ spoke about the Final Judgement, He generally refers to the time of Noah. Then, why does He not know the hour and the time? He does. So, did He also know the time and hour of His death, too? But, He didn’t quite have a date. In fact, nothing through Scripture or Church Tradition states Jesus knew the exact date. He even said during the Agony in the Garden, “Let this cup pass me. But not as I will, but thy will be done” (to His Father.) If He knew this was all going to happen, and why then did He ask His Father to take way this cup (of suffering), when it was imminent that He was going to suffer and die on the Cross?
So your question is a very valid one. We honestly don’t know. Any more we can surmise how God could then enter a womb of a woman, and thereby the offspring of her be the Son of God. That’s a mystery onto itself.
In our feeble human state, we do not have full knowledge of anything. In fact, if we did. I think the whole human population would be bored. And end up becoming insane. Likewise, Jesus (God with us; His only begotten Son) came into human form through a woman, born under the law. That, He took human form. Thus was He, who was subject as God’s only Son as the son of man.
Jesus, though knew God - for He was His only Begotten Son - “who though was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped” (Philippians 2;6)
That’s why when we ask the question “how is it possible”, it is then served from Philippians 2;6.
But you know who asked the same question: “how is it possible?” Mary: “how is it possible, I do not know a man.”
For, it’s because “though in the form of God, did not count it as equality with God to be grasped.” Thus, that is why He doesn’t have full knowledge since the human mind, intelligence, and will of the body/soul fall in the human finite order.
We will have to see/know when we get there. In Heaven. Hopefully I make it. I hope. His Peace be with you.
