Meaning of a couple of verses in the bible part 2

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Meems

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Thank you for the explanation of the Matthew verse.
Sorry about the confusion…:o

…I’m sorry, I guess it was a little early…
1Cor 15:29 is the verse.

"Otherwise, what will people accomplish by having themselves baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, then why are they having themselves baptized for them?

Thank You In Advance
 
This was an apparent reference to a local practice in the vicinity of Corinth during the early days of the Church. There is neither prior nor subsequent reference to it in scripture and the practice died out. It was a heretical practice, as nothing in scripture either mentions or authorizes it. It is obvious why the LDS would have interest in this practice, but no other support for it is given. It was not taught by God, the prophets, Christ, the Twelve, Paul, or otherwise mentioned in scripture, so Christians do not practice it.
 
Was the obvious reference to local practice about Corinth within the first years of Church
 
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