Medication to control a sexual fetish

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Let’s say that someone wants to control a sexual fetish he or she has. That person takes legitimately prescribed medication that inhibits sex-steroid production, thus reducing sexual desire. Does the medication qualify as contraception? I know that utilizing artificial contraception is a mortal sin from an objective standpoint.
 
Let’s say that someone wants to control a sexual fetish he or she has. That person takes legitimately prescribed medication that inhibits sex-steroid production, thus reducing sexual desire. Does the medication qualify as contraception? I know that utilizing artificial contraception is a mortal sin from an objective standpoint.
My understanding is that the drug is NOT being prescribed for contraceptive purposes and would be OK. Plus, not having sexual desire doesn’t mean that if the sex act were to happen, procreation would not happen.

If you couldn’t take drugs that had side effects such as inhibiting libido, there would be a lot of other very problematic issues going on - for example, many drugs that treat depression have this side effect.
 
May I jump in here and ask if there are actually drugs made to help stop sexual desire/urges in people who are unmarried/separated/divorced and having troubles controlling their desires?
 
May I jump in here and ask if there are actually drugs made to help stop sexual desire/urges in people who are unmarried/separated/divorced and having troubles controlling their desires?
There are medications which have this side-effect. I don’t know if there are any specifically designed for the purpose of reducing sexual desire.

I’m going to express my gut instinct here, which would be that this would only be appropriate if the person’s sex drive were pathologically high and the medication brought it down to a more normal level. Medicine should be aimed at restoring healthy functions, not impeding them even if out of good motivations.
 
There are medications which have this side-effect. I don’t know if there are any specifically designed for the purpose of reducing sexual desire.

I’m going to express my gut instinct here, which would be that this would only be appropriate if the person’s sex drive were pathologically high and the medication brought it down to a more normal level. Medicine should be aimed at restoring healthy functions, not impeding them even if out of good motivations.
Hormone treatments for prostate cancer have this effect; these treatments are designed to block testosterone, which fuels certain types of prostate cancer. The side effects include loss of desire and ability to have sex. The effect is known as “chemical castration” and this has been used to treat sexual predators in some jurisdictions, and to treat transgendered people. However their main use is in cancer treatments for hormonally-dependent cancers such as prostate cancer.
 
Hormone treatments for prostate cancer have this effect; these treatments are designed to block testosterone, which fuels certain types of prostate cancer. The side effects include loss of desire and ability to have sex. The effect is known as “chemical castration” and this has been used to treat sexual predators in some jurisdictions, and to treat transgendered people. However their main use is in cancer treatments for hormonally-dependent cancers such as prostate cancer and rarely, breast cancer in men.
Some depression medications also have this side effect (perhaps not to the same degree).
 
There are medications which have this side-effect. I don’t know if there are any specifically designed for the purpose of reducing sexual desire.

I’m going to express my gut instinct here, which would be that this would only be appropriate if the person’s sex drive were pathologically high and the medication brought it down to a more normal level. Medicine should be aimed at restoring healthy functions, not impeding them even if out of good motivations.
And if the person’s sex drive was morally inappropriate (not the opposite sex)?
 
Let’s say that someone wants to control a sexual fetish he or she has. That person takes legitimately prescribed medication that inhibits sex-steroid production, thus reducing sexual desire. Does the medication qualify as contraception? I know that utilizing artificial contraception is a mortal sin from an objective standpoint.
How does this have anything to do with contraception, and why in the name of all holiness would it be a sin?? :confused:
 
May I jump in here and ask if there are actually drugs made to help stop sexual desire/urges in people who are unmarried/separated/divorced and having troubles controlling their desires?
Yes. There are prescription drugs out there served to “chemically castrate.”

It is known to be taken by people who have an attraction towards children. (pedophiles)
 
Let’s say that someone wants to control a sexual fetish he or she has. That person takes legitimately prescribed medication that inhibits sex-steroid production, thus reducing sexual desire. Does the medication qualify as contraception?
You may want to ask your doctor or pharmacist. Some medication has the side effect of reducing libido (sexual desire) but doesn’t interfere with fertility. For example, finasteride is commonly taken tor treatment of prostate problems and, at a lower dose, for male pattern baldness. One of its common side effects is reduced libido. It can even cause mild, temporary impotence in some (but not all) men However, it does not affect sperm production.

You should probably ask your doctor or pharmacist about the effects of the drug on fertility. If a side effect of reduced fertility is common, but not universal, you may need to need to use prudential judgment, perhaps in consultation with your confessor.
 
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