Matt. 5:27-30:
27 "You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’
28 But I say to you, everyone who looks at a woman with lust has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
29 If your right eye causes you to sin, tear it out and throw it away. It is better for you to lose one of your members than to have your whole body thrown into Gehenna.
30 And if your right hand causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away. It is better for you to lose one of your members than to have your whole body go into Gehenna.
We know that Christ did not mean that when confronted with sexual temptation, that we should…cut off…um…certain body parts.
The point he makes is that we need to do everything we can to avoid sin.
So, in the hypothetical posed by the OP, does it not stand to reason that IF a person felt that they needed medication to help them avoid sin, that they should take it?
There are, of course, some presuppositions:
- That the person has received some guidance from a priest, a counselor, a psycologist, a psychiatrist or a combination thereof.
- That the person has tried counseling and it alone simply has not worked.
- That the person is not taking unwise health risks of said medication.
- That the person is seeking ongoing help/guidance to gain control of their sexual actions.
- That the meds are not simply a “quick fix”…i.e. they’d rather just take a pill than to do the work of trying to change their behavior.
I would pose the question as to the moral difference in taking such a medication and taking another type of medication for the same problem. Let’s say the hypothetical person is suffering from depression, which manifests itself in an inability to control their sexual activity. Treating the depression with appropriate meds might addresss the issue and solve the problem. Problem solved, different meds, same moral question.
The other thing that has been mentioned and bears repeating is what would be the difference between “meds for gays” and “meds for straights” who have the same issue: inability to control their inappropriate and sinful sexual activity? Morally speaking, homosexual sex is gravely sinful, so is fornication. Homosexual inclination is not sinful. So I see no moral difference if the scenario is changed to “meds for straights”.
Long story short, I see that under certain circumstances, it’s not morally objectionable.