It is not “absolute”. Absolute would mean that it is applicable everywhere and every time. And we know that cannibalism (for example) is not considered immoral in extreme circumstances (
Alive: The Story of the Andes Survivors - Wikipedia). In other words, morality is relative to the circumstances.
I don’t see how this proves there is no objective morality. To me, all it shows is that there may be many factors that have to be taken into account when determining what the moral choice in any given scenario may be. Stealing is wrong, unless you are stealing to save yourself from starvation. This isn’t two different ethical systems or a ‘subjective’ morality. This is two different scenarios in one objective morality.
I do have an objective argument for it.
Wait, I thought this whole thing was how there is not objective morality. Then how can you have an argument for one.
The problem is that you’re using the word ‘subjective’ in two ways. If all you mean when you say that morality is subjective is that the moral choice might change with a given scenario (like my example above) then I agree with you. If you mean that the moral choice depends upon the person, or the person’s beliefs, then I disagree. A white supremacist’s beliefs are objectively false, regardless of if he believes differently and regardless of his moral system.
I consider it better, because it gives more opportunity to everyone to live their lives according to their preferences.
Is this statement not an objective one - that everyone’s moral system should not infringe on anyone else’s regardless of if they believe differently. And if someone’s moral system does infringe on another’s, then that would be morally wrong.
But I need to object to this proposition of yours: “you’d have to admit that your ethical system has no more truth than a racists or a rapists”. The word “truth” is not applicable here. An ethical system is not “true” or “false”, it is better or not, based upon a subjective value system.
You say that there is not ‘true’ or ‘false’ and instead that it’s ‘better’ or ‘worse’, but you’re using them with the same meaning. You say that one system is ‘better’, but surely that means that it’s more true - in that it more closely approximates the true objective standard? If not, how can you measure which system is better? You could argue that its based upon one’s value system, but this doesn’t solve the problem, it just pushes it a step back, for how does one determine which value system is ‘better’ than someone elses?