V
Valke2
Guest
Herod was king around 37 BCE. I agree he wasn’t from the house of Judah. But I had said in my post that there hadn’t been a king from the line of Judah since the destruction of the first Temple, which would have been 400-500 years before Herod. NOt sure what you are getting at here.
To expand a bit on my original post. If the scepter were not to depart Judah until Shiloh (the comming of the Messiah), and if, as I posted, the last king from Judah was about the same time as the first destruction of the Temple, then, according to the prophecy, the messiah should have appeared about 500 plus years before Jesus is said to have appeared.
If your question about Herod was to counter the interpetation that Gen 49:10 is meant to be read that all kings will be from Judah until the messiah comes, my response is that 49:10 was not a prophetic verse. It was an instruction from Jacob to his sons. “as long as there is a King over Israel, he must be from the tribe of Judah.”
Herod is seen as violation of Jacob’s instructions. Not as a prophetic fullfillment of 39:10.
To expand a bit on my original post. If the scepter were not to depart Judah until Shiloh (the comming of the Messiah), and if, as I posted, the last king from Judah was about the same time as the first destruction of the Temple, then, according to the prophecy, the messiah should have appeared about 500 plus years before Jesus is said to have appeared.
If your question about Herod was to counter the interpetation that Gen 49:10 is meant to be read that all kings will be from Judah until the messiah comes, my response is that 49:10 was not a prophetic verse. It was an instruction from Jacob to his sons. “as long as there is a King over Israel, he must be from the tribe of Judah.”
Herod is seen as violation of Jacob’s instructions. Not as a prophetic fullfillment of 39:10.