Dear LittleOne,
Here is the principle I was trying to think of to explain this: “the thing
known is in the knower * according to the mode of the knower” (Summa th. I, q. 12, a. 4). Or more generally: “whatever is received into something is received according to the
condition* (mode) of the recipient” (Summa th. I, q. 75, a. 5). The condition or mode of the blessed in heaven is different from ours. Therefore Christ is present to them in a different way. (And again, Christ himself is also present in a different way, without prejudice to the
de fide doctrine you mentioned.)
Betterave,
I really appreciate you taking your time in explaining things to me. I found something that I think is explaining what you are explaining to me. I wanted to write it down and see if this is what you are meaning. If it is, I do apologize as I can see I was a little skewed on my understanding and was implying something from the De Fide doctrine. I am very, very, thankful that you have pointed this out to me, as I wish to be fully in line with the Magesterium of the Church. I can say this, in reading your responses to this thread, I have learned a great deal about the Eucharist than I have known, and of that I am truly thankful.
I am quoting from Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by Dr. Ludwig Ott. I think this is what you are saying, but then again I can’t be sure until you affirm it either one way or the other. If it is, I now understand where you are coming from.
"The multilocation of the Body of Christ is not a circumscriptive one. Chirst’s Body is present in its external extension [circumscriptive] in one place only, namely in Heaven. In its sacramental state however it has multipresence in so far as it is present in many places, in a sacramental manner, at one and the same time, without external extension. The multipresence is a mixed one, in so far as the Body is present with external extension in Heaven and without external extension in many places in the Sacrament. "
“A circumscriptive multilocation is according to St. Thomas metaphysically impossible. HOWEVER, Scotus, Suarez, and others, on the other hand, affirm its possibility.”
SO my question is, it could be possible that He is present to us as he is in Heaven???
AND I guess the clincher here is that it opens another question for me, God is Omnipresent, so if Jesus is God, and He is both God and Man, then would he Not in all His attributes and accidentals be present in places as well?
I really appreciate you time in posting the replies to this thread. Thanks and God Bless.