Y
YesIs it possible for an Eastern bishop who is also a cardinal to be elected Pope?
Oh wow I had no idea! So the cardinals can elect anyone they wish, provided of course that he’s a Catholic in good standing?Yes
In fact, he doesn’t even have to be a Cardinal, he doesn’t even have to be a Bishop
Yes. The Holy Spirit will inspire the Cardinals to vote whom God has chosen to lead the Church on earth. That person may be a priest, could even be a lay person I believe. Although the likelihood is very low but the Church is open to that possibility. If a non-Bishop is elected Pope, he will be ordained immediately to become a Bishop.Oh wow I had no idea! So the cardinals can elect anyone they wish, provided of course that he’s a Catholic in good standing?
I believe the Patriarch would also have to switch to become a Roman Rite Bishop in the process because the Pope also is the Patriarch of the Roman Church (although the title is not used, he still exercises the same power) and the diocesan Bishop of the Diocese of Rome and Metropolitan of Rome and Italy.It would be very interesting to see an Eastern Catholic become Pope, I can’t imagine the ramifications it might have for both the Sui Uris churches and the ecumenical dialogue with the Orthodox. I can’t imagine a stronger signal that Rome embraces Eastern Christianity.![]()
Interesting it might be, but I doubt it’s even worth thinking about. Why? 'cuz IMHO it just ain’t gonna happen.It would be very interesting to see an Eastern Catholic become Pope, I can’t imagine the ramifications it might have for both the Sui Uris churches and the ecumenical dialogue with the Orthodox. I can’t imagine a stronger signal that Rome embraces Eastern Christianity.![]()
It’s the same with the Orthodox. Any Orthodox, including laymen; and so long as they meet the canonical requirements, can be elected to the episcopacy, including primatial sees.Oh wow I had no idea! So the cardinals can elect anyone they wish, provided of course that he’s a Catholic in good standing?
Well, some of the early Popes were Greek and Pope Paul VI (and one other) were of the Ambrosian, Milanese Rite (not of the Roman Rite).Interesting it might be, but I doubt it’s even worth thinking about. Why? 'cuz IMHO it just ain’t gonna happen.
True, but still the Eastern Churches would be more in his mind and heart than any of the Popes.Well, some of the early Popes were Greek and Pope Paul VI (and one other) were of the Ambrosian, Milanese Rite (not of the Roman Rite).
Even if an Eastern Catholic were elected Roman Pontiff, he would have to perform most of his liturgical functions in the Latin Rite anyway . . .
Alex
Yes, there were a number of Greek and Syrian Bishops of Rome, but it hasn’t happened in some 12 centuries. For all the talk, I really don’t think it’s going to happen again any time soon. Personally, I don’t much care one way or the other.Well, some of the early Popes were Greek and Pope Paul VI (and one other) were of the Ambrosian, Milanese Rite (not of the Roman Rite).
Even though the title “Patriarch of the West” is currently in disuse, it is de facto encompassed in the Bishop of Rome.Even if an Eastern Catholic were elected Roman Pontiff, he would have to perform most of his liturgical functions in the Latin Rite anyway .
Not really a formal process… Just the appointment to take the appropriate diocese/eparchy, and in a few historic cases (ABp. Elko), being forbidden to practice the rite they originated in.I wonder though how bishops change sui juris Church and Rite. Is there any formal process or they just say, “okay, your a Roman Bishop now and Pope”
I think you are referring to this …Hello all!
I have a question and a comment.
I was startled by Archbishop Butros’s statements concerning the Jews and the whole two-state solution. I am not here to debate about Judaism, but my question concerns if this is his opinion, or does it hold authority coming from a Synod? In other words, what level of authority does a synod have in this situation?
Thanks, and God Bless
Pakesh
Shouldn’t that be Abp Bustros?Hello all!
I have a question and a comment.
I was startled by Archbishop Butros’s statements concerning the Jews and the whole two-state solution. I am not here to debate about Judaism, but my question concerns if this is his opinion, or does it hold authority coming from a Synod? In other words, what level of authority does a synod have in this situation?
Thanks, and God Bless
Pakesh
I was also thinking it had to be that statement. Whether it was official or not (whatever “official” means), I don’t know either, but I don’'t think it much matters. From what was actually reported said, I, too, agree in general with the sense in **Christian ** terms, (not in political terms). That said, though, I have a feeling that there may things hidden “between the lines” with which I would not agree (I rarely agree with the Melkites, and even more rarely with the Antiochian Orthodox, but neither has a bearin on this thread).I think you are referring to this …
“We Christians cannot speak of the ‘promised land’ as an exclusive right for a privileged Jewish people,” said Archbishop Cyril Bustros, a native of Lebanon who is currently a Melkite Greek Catholic bishop in Newton, Mass.
“This promise was nullified by Christ,” Bustros said at a Vatican press conference marking the end of a two-week session of the Synod of Bishops. “There is no longer a chosen people – all men and women of all countries have become the chosen people.”
I don’t know how official the remarks are, but I agree with the sense of it for the most part.