P
patrick457
Guest
I should note that the ancient idea of ‘writing’ something is different from ours. When you composed a document or a letter in the ancient world, usually you wouldn’t it write it out by your own hand: you would dictate it to a hired professional scribe (an amanuensis) who would jot it down for you. We know for instance St. Paul employed a guy named Tertius to write the letter to the Romans (16:22), and we can infer from some of his other letters that he was not the one who was personally writing them as well (cf. Galatians 6:11) - perhaps he was again using Tertius or some other scribe. I don’t think it’s unreasonable to assume that maybe the other NT authors also have had scribes handy: in the Eastern Church, there’s also a popular tradition that the deacon Prochorus (Acts 6:5) acted in that capacity to John.I will never believe that the disciples were illiterate and incapable of writing down their eyewitness accounts.
A real Matthew wrote what he saw as an eye witness–same for John.
Mark was mostly from Peter and Luke was mostly from Paul–Peter was also an eyewitness and Paul knew the disciples as well as many other christians who were eyewitnesses.
Plus I think the whole excuse about how the Aramaic-speaking, peasant ‘illiterate’ apostles could not have composed the Greek gospels is overused.* (In fact, I’d question the idea some scholars have about ‘illiteracy’ in the ancient world.) Personally I would allow for the idea of multiple ‘authors’ being involved (i.e. the ultimate ideas behind the gospels derive from eyewitnesses like Matthew or John themselves, even if the ones who actually put down the gospel into papyrus and published it were other people, perhaps their disciples - which might explain things like the eloquent Greek of John’s gospel). I don’t think that necessarily compromises the belief that the gospels were by Matthew, Mark, Luke or John, any more than Paul using amanuenses would compromise his authorship of his letters.
- The meaning of agrammatoi (‘unlettered’) in Acts 4:13 is not so much that Peter and John could not read or write, but rather, that they were ‘not formally educated’; i.e. they had no formal rabbinic training. The council interrogating them would not have immediately known from the brief verbal exchange whether these men could read or write, nor was that the focus of their amazement. The source of their amazement rather is that they, who were not formally trained scholars, could hold their own in argument with some of the experts of the nation.