C
CollegeKid
Guest
Guys, I’d appreciate any insight you can give on this:
In the CA tract on being born again in baptism, it distinctly mentions the importance that in John 3:5 Jesus told Nicodemus that a man must be “born again of the water and spirit”, because since it doesn’t say, “of the water and of the spirit,” just “of the water and spirit” it means that the water baptism also accomplishes being born again in the holy spirit, and that if it said the other, it would imply two separate born again experiences, so to speak (that’s probably a poor paraphrase). BUT, in my King James Bible (please understand I’ll be getting a Catholic bible as soon as I can) it does say “of the water and of the spirit.” In Catholic bibles does it say the former, which would be supported by the CA tract? My KJV Bible says exactly what CA says it doesn’t.
In the CA tract on being born again in baptism, it distinctly mentions the importance that in John 3:5 Jesus told Nicodemus that a man must be “born again of the water and spirit”, because since it doesn’t say, “of the water and of the spirit,” just “of the water and spirit” it means that the water baptism also accomplishes being born again in the holy spirit, and that if it said the other, it would imply two separate born again experiences, so to speak (that’s probably a poor paraphrase). BUT, in my King James Bible (please understand I’ll be getting a Catholic bible as soon as I can) it does say “of the water and of the spirit.” In Catholic bibles does it say the former, which would be supported by the CA tract? My KJV Bible says exactly what CA says it doesn’t.