Mitochondrial Eve

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Many refer to the “Mitochondrial Eve” as evidence of monogenism, that all humans descended from an original pair of two humans. My question is does this “Mitochondrial Eve” still appy today? Or has it been refuted?

And my second question, wouldn’t a “Mitochondrial Eve” imply a first male human too? :confused:

THANKS
 
Many refer to the “Mitochondrial Eve” as evidence of monogenism, that all humans descended from an original pair of two humans. My question is does this “Mitochondrial Eve” still appy today? Or has it been refuted?
The concept of Mitochondrial Eve and Y-chromosome Adam are certainly not gone. In fact, it’s a mathematical certainty that existing human mitochondria and the non-recombining portion of the Y-chromosome coalesce to single ancestors. The mtDNA Eve is dated at 175,000 years ago, and the Y-chromosome Adam at about 75,000 years ago. But these are not evidence for monogenism - they just mean that all people alive today have a single ancestor in the strictly maternal line, but also have other female ancestors in the same generation as mtDNA Eve whose ancestry passes through the male line at some point. The same goes for the NRY.
And my second question, wouldn’t a “Mitochondrial Eve” imply a first male human too? :confused:
See above.

Alec
evolutionpages.com
 
Even a belief in Darwinian evolution would require a first male and first female Homo sapiens, would it not?
 
Even a belief in Darwinian evolution would require a first male and first female Homo sapiens, would it not?
Nope. The transition between a homo sapien and their immediate ancestor did not occur in a single generation. Populations evolve, not individuals.
 
Many refer to the “Mitochondrial Eve” as evidence of monogenism, that all humans descended from an original pair of two humans. My question is does this “Mitochondrial Eve” still appy today? Or has it been refuted?

And my second question, wouldn’t a “Mitochondrial Eve” imply a first male human too? :confused:

THANKS
A mitochondrial Eve is a necessary ingredient for monogenism, but far from sufficient. Supposedly, there are ways to estimate the size of the human population in the time of the mitochondrial Eve (wikipedia suggests ~10,000 individuals), but they are beyond my area of expertise. I recommend asking an evolutionary biologist about it, if you are interested. You can find one in the directory of your local college or university.
 
Nope. The transition between a homo sapien and their immediate ancestor did not occur in a single generation. Populations evolve, not individuals.
Huh??

So Man evolved, but not humans? Humans have always existed??

How is a transition from “immediate ancestor” not a single generation? What makes it immediate if not being the very next generation?
 
Huh??

So Man evolved, but not humans? Humans have always existed??

How is a transition from “immediate ancestor” not a single generation? What makes it immediate if not being the very next generation?
Because as has been pointed out populations evolve not individuals, you have to remember that the “species” is only a human classification of that particular hominid model.
 
Huh??

So Man evolved, but not humans? Humans have always existed??

How is a transition from “immediate ancestor” not a single generation? What makes it immediate if not being the very next generation?
I am accustomed to set-theoretic definitions, so I will answer your question thusly: Consider species S and species T, each with a set of ancestral species A(S) and A(T). Then S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if A(T) = A(S) ∪ {S}.

In other words, S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if T is descended from S with no intermediate species in between.

This does not mean that one generation is S, and the next generation is T, unless of course one stipulates so for the sake of a certain context.
 
I am accustomed to set-theoretic definitions, so I will answer your question thusly: Consider species S and species T, each with a set of ancestral species A(S) and A(T). Then S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if A(T) = A(S) ∪ {S}.

In other words, S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if T is descended from S with no intermediate species in between.

This does not mean that one generation is S, and the next generation is T, unless of course one stipulates so for the sake of a certain context.
But you’re just talking about pure-breeding. You’re saying that one is not an immediate offspring of the other unless both parents are of the pure blood.

So who is the immediate ancestor of the mut?
 
Nope. The transition between a homo sapien and their immediate ancestor did not occur in a single generation. Populations evolve, not individuals.
Because as has been pointed out populations evolve not individuals, you have to remember that the “species” is only a human classification of that particular hominid model.
So then populations must not be made of individuals, they must be something else entirely.
 
So then populations must not be made of individuals, they must be something else entirely.
Oh dear :o.

OK individuals contain mutations, in other words organisms reproduce with variation.

For these mutation to propagate throughout a species, the individual containing them must pass them on, and they must be selected. This takes multiple generations.

Put very crudely, the individuals mutate and the gene pools evolve.
 
Oh dear :o.

OK individuals contain mutations, in other words organisms reproduce with variation.

For these mutation to propagate throughout a species, the individual containing them must pass them on, and they must be selected. This takes multiple generations.

Put very crudely, the individuals mutate and the gene pools evolve.
Now that makes more sense.
 
Oh dear :o.

OK individuals contain mutations, in other words organisms reproduce with variation.

For these mutation to propagate throughout a species, the individual containing them must pass them on, and they must be selected. This takes multiple generations.

Put very crudely, the individuals mutate and the gene pools evolve.
Now that makes more sense.
Let me add on thing.

This does not mean that I think you are right or that evolution is correct.

Just that this statement makes a whole lot more sense than your earlier one.
 
So the question is still;

Who is the immediate ancestor of the mut?
 
So the question is still;

Who is the immediate ancestor of the mut?
There is no species called “mut.” There is the dog, which includes the mut, and its immediate ancestor was some kind of ancient wolf.
 
Well it was said that only pure breeds have immediate ancestors, so I guess the mut has no immediate ancestor. But the homosapien at some point would have to be merely a mut[tant] from another former breed or breeds.

So what has been said is that the homosapien has no immediate ancestor.
 
Well it was said that only pure breeds have immediate ancestors, so I guess the mut has no immediate ancestor. But the homosapien at some point would have to be merely a mut[tant] from another former breed or breeds.

So what has been said is that the homosapien has no immediate ancestor.
Who said that about purebred dogs? Not I. And no one in this thread, as far as I can see.

The hubbub regards this post:
Nope. The transition between a homo sapien and their immediate ancestor did not occur in a single generation. Populations evolve, not individuals.
I am only explaining what cerad meant by that. “Immediate ancestor” is not some kind of formal term in biology.
 
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