J
James_S_Saint
Guest
This is merely an explanation of pure-breeding unless you were merely saying the exact same thing already said.I am accustomed to set-theoretic definitions, so I will answer your question thusly: Consider species S and species T, each with a set of ancestral species A(S) and A(T). Then S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if A(T) = A(S) ∪ {S}.
In other words, S is the immediate ancestor of T if and only if T is descended from S with no intermediate species in between.
This does not mean that one generation is S, and the next generation is T, unless of course one stipulates so for the sake of a certain context.
The statement was;
That statement means that the first homo sapien did not occur from an immediate ancestry. Somehow the homo sapien occurred without an immediate ancestor. How do you do that? How do you have no homo sapien one generation then have homo sapien the next but the homo sapien wasn’t the “immediate” offspring of anyone?Nope. The transition between a homo sapien and their immediate ancestor did not occur in a single generation. Populations evolve, not individuals.