P
PeteZaHut
Guest
1635 According to the law in force in the Latin Church, a mixed marriage needs for liceity the express permission of ecclesiastical authority.137 In case of disparity of cult an express dispensation from this impediment is required for the validity of the marriage.138 This permission or dispensation presupposes that both parties know and do not exclude the essential ends and properties of marriage; and furthermore that the Catholic party confirms the obligations, which have been made known to the non-Catholic party, of preserving his or her own faith and ensuring the baptism and education of the children in the Catholic Church.139
I got caught on the part that says “This permission or dispensation presupposes that both parties know and do not exclude the essential ends and properties of marriage.” What does this mean. I found that the essential properties of marriage are unity and indissolubility. Am I assuming correctly that the ends of marriage are unity and procreation?
So what does this mean? Does this mean that the non-Catholic spouse would have to promise not to use contraceptives of any form? It doesn’t say anything about making a promise, but it does say these ends are not to be excluded. Does it mean something more like both spouses have to be open to having children?
I got caught on the part that says “This permission or dispensation presupposes that both parties know and do not exclude the essential ends and properties of marriage.” What does this mean. I found that the essential properties of marriage are unity and indissolubility. Am I assuming correctly that the ends of marriage are unity and procreation?
So what does this mean? Does this mean that the non-Catholic spouse would have to promise not to use contraceptives of any form? It doesn’t say anything about making a promise, but it does say these ends are not to be excluded. Does it mean something more like both spouses have to be open to having children?