Mk 10:2-12 - divorced and remarried - Eucharist?

[godisgood77]

Eucharist for divorced and remarried couples has been a high profile topic for some time. Mark chapter 2 versus 2-12 is often used as the biblical basis for denying the sacrament to people in this situation.

My question is this…Jesus clearly says that the divorce is sinful and that those who remarry commit adultery. There is clearly no reference to how being in this state would impact one’s ability to be forgiven and receive. When was this law put in to place and by who? Any references would be appreciated.

Pax

 

[Catholicgauze]

One can go to confession and live with their partner as “brother and sister” (no sex). Then they stop the adultery and can receive communion.

 

[godisgood77]

One can go to confession and live with their partner as “brother and sister” (no sex). Then they stop the adultery and can receive communion.

Thanks for the response. I undestand the Church’s teaching. Curious when and by whom the teaching/law was put in place. Any references to the Fathers or early papal teachings would be appreciated. I’m not looking to contest the teaching, just looking to learn.

 

[powerofk]

Thanks for the response. I undestand the Church’s teaching. Curious when and by whom the teaching/law was put in place. Any references to the Fathers or early papal teachings would be appreciated. I’m not looking to contest the teaching, just looking to learn.

The teaching was given by Jesus Himself in the passage you quoted. Matthew’s Gospel includes the line: “unless the marriage is unlawful” (though many translations state “unless there is adultery”, the teaching is meant to excuse incestuous relationships). It is this line that allows for the ability of a couple to ask for an annulment. If the “unless the marriage is unlawful” line had not been included, separations for safety would be allowed, but annulments would be impossible, as well.

 

[godisgood77]

The teaching was given by Jesus Himself in the passage you quoted. Matthew’s Gospel includes the line: “unless the marriage is unlawful” (though many translations state “unless there is adultery”, the teaching is meant to excuse incestuous relationships). It is this line that allows for the ability of a couple to ask for an annulment. If the “unless the marriage is unlawful” line had not been included, separations for safety would be allowed, but annulments would be impossible, as well.

There is no reference to the Eucharist in the passage I referenced - at least not explicitly.

Just looking for how and who interpreted the teaching to mean what it does today.

 

[getysbg]

Scripture tells us to be in a state of grace before receiving.( the passage about forgiving those we are angry with). If you are in a state of sin AND refuse to stop it, how can you receive?

 

[vsedriver]

There is no reference to the Eucharist in the passage I referenced - at least not explicitly.

Just looking for how and who interpreted the teaching to mean what it does today.

it is based on this:

“Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord.” [1 Cor. 11:27]

if you are in a state of mortal sin you should not receive communion. Adultery is mortal sin. Therefore those living in the state of mortal sin of adultery by remarriage without an annulled first marriage should not receive communion.

 

[Gorgias]

One can go to confession and live with their partner as “brother and sister” (no sex). Then they stop the adultery and can receive communion.

This is not something that a person can decide on their own, unilaterally. It is something that is possible, but is not something that is based in canon law or is a ‘right’ that is owed to anyone. Rather, a person’s pastor may decide to extend this pastoral solution to his parishioner(s), based on his personal prudential judgment; likewise, he might decide that this approach isn’t a good one and therefore not offer this solution.