Apparently smaneck it seems you are unable to understand my argument. That is the use of the term comforter in the epistles of John in regaurds to Jesus a universal standard of the word, that therefore we might apply this to Jesus in the gospels?
If indeed the same author wrote both works is a good indication of how he understood this term.
I would suggest since Jesus says in order for the comforter to come (you are apparently arguing the comforter is Jesus or you are making a useless point), he must Go. Are they therefore the same?
What I’m saying is that there is a strong indication that for John the term ‘comforter’ referred to a person, not simply the Holy Spirit.
Clearly no, unless you would to believe in Sabealinism.
No, I’m a strict monotheist.
Now I don’t think it is a misinterpretation and we have to examine history and I think it can shown that even if a metaphorical victory is given to the true followers of Jesus instead of what we might expect God to give them in surah:
And I don’t think you are really in any position to offer accurate interpretations of the Qur’an. How’s your Arabic?
Behold! Allah said: “O Jesus! I will take thee and raise thee to Myself and clear thee (of the falsehoods) of those who blaspheme; I will make those who follow thee SUPERIOR to those who reject faith, TO THE DAY OF RESURRECTION: Then shall ye all return unto Me, and I will judge between you of the matters wherein ye dispute.” S. 3:55
That has nothing to do with the Qur’an taking sides in sectarian Christian disputes. It is about making a distinction between those who accept Christ and those who reject him. What the Qur’an
does do is rejection sectarianism itself, condemning “those who have split their religion, and have become sects, where every party rejoices in what is their own.” (Qur’an 30: 31).
O ye who believe! Be ye helpers of Allah: as said Jesus the son of Mary to the Disciples, “Who will be my helpers to (the work of) Allah?” Said the Disciples, “We are Allah’s helpers!” then a portion of the Children of Israel believed, and a portion disbelieved: But We gave power to those who believed against their enemies, AND THEY BECAME THE ONES THAT PREVAILED. S. 61:14
Yes, in the end Christianity prevailed over Judaism. We are still not talking about a specific form of Christianity.
Now I think the indication of giving power is clear, unless it’s a merely a symbol in which case they had no real power. Certaintly any such group that could have possibly been in line with Muhammad and his revelation had died out long before he come into existence.
Sorry, you’re not making any sense here.
The true followers of Jesus apparently did not prevail in anyway, they were apparently routed and had no influence or they simply hid themselves, not obeying the gospel which commands to proselytise.
Am I misinterpreting it?
Yeah you are. The Qur’an is merely talking about Christianity in general prevailing over its enemies. It is not suggesting that any particular church has preserved the teachings in their pure form.
Certaintly muslims have tried to answer this, some have suggested it was the roman empire which became Chrisitan, of course the problem is manifold in that in the eyes of Bahai and Muslims the Christians of the roman empire were heretics and the worst of all people for associating partners with allah (which is an unforgivable sin, unless in bahai that promise has been revoked).
Shirk or joining partners with God, is when we place anything in our lives ahead of God. The Trinity, in itself, is just a concept. I happen to believe it is an inaccurate way of thinking about God’s activities, but no, one does not become the ‘worst of all people’ for believing in it. The Qur’an states that the worst of creatures among the People of the Book are the ungrateful (Kafaroon.) It goes on to say that the best of creatures are the ones who have faith and do good deeds.
Now, can you give any evidence for the positive existence of the collyridians?
You already did. You cited references to them.
If he is speaking to the collyridians he is addressing a people so minor that they would not exist soon or shortly thereafter.
If so, that might have been because of Islam itself.
But My point in brinigng up Christians in the middle east was in direct response to your cliam Christians didn’t have a place there.
Who said anything about the Middle East? Of course, there were Christians in the Middle East. The Byzantines controlled half of it! We were talking specifically about the Arabian Peninsula.
even if I agree with your statement, Muhammad had most of the Christian empire to respond and talk to.
No, he didn’t. The only time he addresses Christians within the Roman Empire is when he supposedly sends out letters to the Emperor, the Patriarch of Egypt, etc. towards the end of his life.
Muahmmad shows no comprehensive understanding of the Orthodox theology of the roman empire, both eastern and western, at all.
So what if he didn’t?