D
danserr
Guest
Again, you conflate moral epistemolgy and ontology. You say “a relativist can condemn things because it is a statement that to the best of our knowedge is wrong.” But the relativist (I gather you mean someone who thinks morality is subjective) denies that objective moral values exist. How can you know something if that something doesn’t exist! ! !A relativist can condemn things because it is a statement of “to the best of our knowledge” this is wrong. As a society we agree to these precepts. Those that don’t follow are subject to the repercussions. If in the future our understanding changes, so will the "rules. "
In the case of rape there are conditional repercussions for the act of rape in the bible. There are different levels of “wrong”.
Deuteronomy 22:23-29
28-29 is basically, “you broke it, you bought it.” Which isn’t a strong condemnation - imo.
And if society agreed rape were morally right and that those who did not rape someone would be punished, what could the subjectivity possible say to this? A Christian could say that such is objectively absurd because God forbids it, a subjectivist could say nothing!
I have already answered the issue of references to the Old testament in my first post on this thread.