jon,
I have to say, I don’t think you’re the most rational guy around, but at least you’re civil, and you try to stay on subject, even though I think many of your remarks are (unwittingly) irrelevant. thanks for that.
Moral absolutism does
not state there is only one way to determine morality, i.e., only
heterosexual relationships in the context of marriage are moral. Do you know what “i.e.” means? It means “that is.” With that in mind, do you see how your claim doesn’t make sense?
That’s nonsense, jon. You’re very confused here. If relative morality is
within the context of a society, then it may well be that the society in question is Saudi Arabia, and
within this society what is the status of homosexual acts? “There are many ways to cook the steak”? Of course not.
Okay, whatever. I don’t know why you think that constitutes proof, but here’s the very obvious point you missed:
relativism makes a claim just as much as absolutism does. (I hope you understand that. Please think about it if it really never occurred to before - in itself, it’s actually a very obvious point.) So how is the burden of proof on absolutism, rather than relativism?
Both make a claim.
(Please answer question, rather than more repetition
ad nauseam.

)