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christcnection1
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Good question! If you don’t understand Catholic teaching, it would certainly appear to be contradiction.where’s the misinformation. Do catholics not believe sex is only for reproducing. Another question, if sex is only for reproducing what about sex with pregnant women? is that allowed and if so, wouldn’t it contradict the idea of sex for reproduction
Found at:
ewtn.com/vexperts/showmessage.asp?number=495070&Pg=Forum11&Pgnu=1&recnu=12
NFP sex in pregnancy
Question from LEW on 2/22/2007:
The church teaching describes the necessity of every sexual act between married couple to be completed as vaginal intercourse to fulfill the open to life definition. My question regards sex in pregnancy, when there is no more possibility for new life until the pregnancy concludes in delivery. Is oral sex or any other sexual act permited with ejaculation outside the vagina then since both spouses are well aware and its a common sense that during pregnancy each sexual act can’t bring more new life? If not, then why not? Thank you for your answer.
Answer by Fr. Matthew Habiger - NFP Outreach on 4/19/2007:
God designed the spousal act to be an expression of the total gift of self by one spouse to another. This means making the total gift of self; with no reservations, no conditions, nothing held back. One’s fertility obviously is part of this total gift of self. This can only be expressed as viginal intercourse.
Since so much is involved with the spousal act, both in terms of love and human life, there is something sacred about it. We need to be aware of that.
Even if the woman is not in her fertile period (during pregnancy, infertile period of her cycle, menopause, etc.) the spousal act was designed to be expressed as vaginal intercourse. Deliberate ejaculation outside the vagina is always wrong.
Cordially yours,
Fr. Matthew Habiger
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famdigy
Guest
thanks for the reply, im curious is that based on the father’s personal opinion or is it based in the bible. I’d love to see some biblical texts on the subject if available.Good question! If you don’t understand Catholic teaching, it would certainly appear to be contradiction.
Found at:
ewtn.com/vexperts/showmessage.asp?number=495070&Pg=Forum11&Pgnu=1&recnu=12
NFP sex in pregnancy
Question from LEW on 2/22/2007:
The church teaching describes the necessity of every sexual act between married couple to be completed as vaginal intercourse to fulfill the open to life definition. My question regards sex in pregnancy, when there is no more possibility for new life until the pregnancy concludes in delivery. Is oral sex or any other sexual act permited with ejaculation outside the vagina then since both spouses are well aware and its a common sense that during pregnancy each sexual act can’t bring more new life? If not, then why not? Thank you for your answer.
Answer by Fr. Matthew Habiger - NFP Outreach on 4/19/2007:
God designed the spousal act to be an expression of the total gift of self by one spouse to another. This means making the total gift of self; with no reservations, no conditions, nothing held back. One’s fertility obviously is part of this total gift of self. This can only be expressed as viginal intercourse.
Since so much is involved with the spousal act, both in terms of love and human life, there is something sacred about it. We need to be aware of that.
Even if the woman is not in her fertile period (during pregnancy, infertile period of her cycle, menopause, etc.) the spousal act was designed to be expressed as vaginal intercourse. Deliberate ejaculation outside the vagina is always wrong.
Cordially yours,
Fr. Matthew Habiger
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famdigy
Guest
In other wordsAnother shocker from the link above:
Husband: I don’t want to use a condom
Wife: thats fine but i’m not ready to have kids so i’m on the pill.
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mark_a
Guest
I’m not sure I’m following.In other words
Husband: I don’t want to use a condom
Wife: thats fine but i’m not ready to have kids so i’m on the pill.
“Without his approval” implies “without his knowledge” also. Is this incorrect?
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christcnection1
Guest
This is Catholic Church teaching, not merely the priest’s opinion. Whether this is Biblical, I would say absolutely; however, you are not going to find specific passages of scripture that “spell out” this belief. Likewise, you are not going to find much direct Biblical support against human cloning for example. Yet all faithful Christians know that human cloning in not God’s will, or part of His design.thanks for the reply, im curious is that based on the father’s personal opinion or is it based in the bible. I’d love to see some biblical texts on the subject if available.
I’m not sure if this was dealt with yet, but Catholics do not believe that the Bible alone is the final authority on doctrine and morality. We believe in the Bible, Sacred Tradition, and the Magisterium (God’s established Church hierarchy - the Pope in union with the Bishops) guided by the Holy Spirit determines doctrinal and moral truths. They can never contradict both Scripture and Sacred Tradition. This is our belief.
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mark_a
Guest
According to Shiite islam Jurisprudence, Contraceptives are Allowed. See the link for further details al-islam.org/m_morals/chap4.htm
A question to catholics:
why isn’t birth control allowed in Catholicism?
The wife has full right to the use of contraceptives even without the approval of her husband. (Minhaj, vol. 2, p. 276) However, she should not use a method which may come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights. For example, she cannot force him to use condom or practice coitus interruptus. This rule is based upon the principle that the extent of the husband’s conjugal rights over his wife is just that she should be sexually available, responsive, and cooperative. This right does not extend to that of bearing children for him. Bearing children or not is a personal decision of the woman; and therefore, she may use contraceptives provided they do not come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights.*Can a woman practice birth control without the consent of her husband?
Still trying to understand if Muslim women’s birth control without the consent of her husband (as stated above) can possibly mean she can contracept without her husband’s knowledge. *
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mark_a
Guest
Originally Posted by famdigy forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_cab/viewpost.gif
According to Shiite islam Jurisprudence, Contraceptives are Allowed. See the link for further details al-islam.org/m_morals/chap4.htm
A question to catholics:
why isn’t birth control allowed in Catholicism?
**Can a woman practice birth control without the consent of her husband? *
Still trying to understand if Muslim women’s birth control without the consent of her husband (as stated above) can possibly mean she can contracept without her husband’s knowledge. *
According to Shiite islam Jurisprudence, Contraceptives are Allowed. See the link for further details al-islam.org/m_morals/chap4.htm
A question to catholics:
why isn’t birth control allowed in Catholicism?
**Can a woman practice birth control without the consent of her husband? *
, vol. 2, p. 276) However, she should not use a method which may come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights. For example, she cannot force him to use condom or practice coitus interruptus. This rule is based upon the principle that the extent of the husband’s conjugal rights over his wife is just that she should be sexually available, responsive, and cooperative. This right does not extend to that of bearing children for him. Bearing children or not is a personal decision of the woman; and therefore, she may use contraceptives provided they do not come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights.The wife has full right to the use of contraceptives even without the approval of her husband. (Minhaj
Still trying to understand if Muslim women’s birth control without the consent of her husband (as stated above) can possibly mean she can contracept without her husband’s knowledge. *
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