O
Orielensis
Guest
Hi everyone,
having read the thread challenging Protestants to justify their use of artificial contraception, I thought I’d create a new thread, as the current one is just far too long for anyone to join the debate at this point.
Here’s how I understand Rome’s prohibition of artificial contraception:
Many thanks,
O.
having read the thread challenging Protestants to justify their use of artificial contraception, I thought I’d create a new thread, as the current one is just far too long for anyone to join the debate at this point.
Here’s how I understand Rome’s prohibition of artificial contraception:
- AC goes against the natural law, namely that sexual intercourse was designed by God for the purpose of procreation.
- AC is a contravention of the commandment to procreate in Genesis 1:28.
- Many moral philosophers and theologians, although I do not include myself amongst them, would reject ‘natural law’ theory as either unbiblical or as committing the ‘naturalistic fallacy’ of deriving an ‘ought’ from an ‘is’. (Cf. G.E. Moore).
- There seems to be no reason to assume that the obvious procreative purpose of sexual intercourse is the only purpose of that intercourse. Jesus’s teachings on divorce seem to make it pretty clear that another purpose of sexual intercourse is that it is unitive of the married man and woman.
- Re: Gen.1:28, I struggle to see how this can be interpreted as a command to procreate every time the conjugal act is enjoyed. One can be open to children without constantly procreating. Is it sinful, for example, for a couple to abstain from sex when the woman is fertile? Should every couple have a child every year? If we adopt a maximalist approach to Gen. 1:28, as Rome seems to do so on this occasion, man and woman have a duty to procreate as often as humanly possible!
Many thanks,
O.