cont. from last post…
No, he can’t. That would be doing it on his own authority, and all priesthood ordinations have to be done with the correct authority. For us that wouldn’t be an automatic excommunication, but it would mean an inevitable, and very definite, one.
Right. But can a LDS bishop be given permission to ordain another bishop? As you said, stake presidents usually were bishops before. But, can a regular bishop, without a higher calling (i.e. stake president, general authority, etc), receive permission to ordain other bishops? That’s fundamentally what I was wondering.
Ah, yes…thank you. That’s what I mean, though those excommunications have been rescinded, yes?
Yes, they have, though the SSPX are still in an irregular status.
Then how is the Pope giving permission for ordinations any different from Archbishop Lefebvre doing the same thing?
This goes back to the primacy of Peter, extending into the primacy of the Bishop of Rome. It is by virtue of the office of Bishop of Rome that the Pope can give permission for ordinations, and not by virtue of his ordination as a bishop.
In Catholicism, two words are important to the sacraments: “valid/invalid” and “licit/illicit”. The case of Archbishop Lefebvre illustrates this. All Catholic bishops can ordain other bishops. This is “validity”. Having permission from the Pope makes it “licit”, essentially “legal”/“authorized”. Archbishop Lefebvre’s ordinations were valid. Since he was a bishop, he had the power to ordain these people. However they were illicit ordinations, since he didn’t have permission from the Pope to ordain them. Therefore, such bishops were outside of the normal bounds of the Catholic Church structure.
So, this “permission granting” rests only in the office of the Bishop of Rome, because of his primacy over the other bishops. In Catholicism, there are only three “Orders” of the priesthood: deacon, priest, bishop. Within those, there are different offices/titles that carry different functions, rights and privileges, such as patriarch, cardinal, bishop of Rome (Pope), etc. “Permission granting” for ordination is one of those privileges that only the Bishop of Rome holds.
…but…he’s still a Bishop. Not an apostle. See where the sticking point is, for us? As to revelation, yes, I’m certain that he can, and does, recieve revelation as we all do. The problem, of course, is that no Pope has ever claimed to have one that affects the entire church. …
Well that depends on what we mean by revelation. Some may interpret the exercising of Papal Infallibility, in defining the Immaculate Conception of Mary and the Assumption of Mary, as “revelation”, in the sense that the Pope was guided by the Holy Spirit in defining these dogmas. Catholics would not see these two doctrines as pulled out of the blue necessarily, but that God guided the Pope in formally defining them.
…but…Paul did. He had revelations. He ordered people around and gave permission for ordinations. He was called, and accepted by Peter and the other apostles as an apostle. He did everything that the first set of twelve did. Doesn’t this indicate that this level of authority, revelation and line of authority was meant to continue?
Paul of course had an important role in the development of the early Church. Paul was an apostle, but he wasn’t an apostle of the Twelve. One of the main differences between Paul and the Twelve goes back to the “criteria” for being one of the Twelve that we believe was made explicit when Matthias was chosen. In fact, I can see many Catholic authorities of old as being apostles that “did everything the first set of twelve did”, complete with revelations, ordinations, etc., and yet we would not consider them to be part of the same “quorum of the twelve” as the originals. Paul was also visited personally by Jesus Christ for his unique role.
This article may be helpful:
catholic.com/thisrock/2001/0107bt.asp