She has me on ignore so she won’t answer anyway. If you can’t beat the truth, ignore it, right? But I welcome the response nonetheless.
Your point only has validity if we can demonstrate that a given passage has been warped and distorted, implying a different meaning. This is the reason that the Mormons harp on different versions of the Bible without bothering to read and compare any of them. Since all that I’m aware of, except the Joseph Smith Translation, use the same sources, going back as far as possible, put the translation into print for ease of readability, for serious study, or in the dialact of that particular era. Just because different terminology is used don’t mean that the meaning is going to be wholly different.
Are you then saying that all who read the Bible get the same meaning out of the Bible? There are no differences in doctrine? Everyone’s belief is the same?
Okay, let’s explore that; if the Bible was reliable, why did God have Joseph Smith ‘retranslate’ it? And why, then, doesn’t the LDS use that version, the JST? Why would God allow the apostate RLDS obtain the copyright to it and leave the LDS, the church he supposedly leads, get only the notes from it? How is it that your God was stymied by a mere woman, Emma Smith?
I hate to sound like a broken record, but the Bible is reliable as far as it is translated correctly. Joseph Smith was to translate it to put meaning back into it that was lost. The LDS do use the JST. There are many footnotes that point it, and excerpts printed in their entirety that are included in our standard works. You make the assertion that God was stymied by a mere woman, but that just doesn’t hold water because we have it and use it.
Yes, ‘getting the words right’ is important, but curious how they so often line up with those we find in the KJV, first published in 1611 when the BOM was supposedly written 1,226 years earlier. Since we know that Smith really had nothing to do with the translation of the BOM, the words had to be from God, if we are to believe the accounts of David Whitmer and Apostle Russle M. Nelson.
You make it sound like you are asserting that the BoM was written in the language of the KJV, which it was not. It was translated into language that was similar to the language used in the scriptures at that time.
The “we” you refer to does not include me, as I know differently than you assert.
None of that makes any sense, does it?
None of your assertions make sense, it is true.
Okay, if you can use the Bible to support your beliefs, please show me where the Bible tells us that we can become gods like God.
John 17. Also see Rev. 3:21. To me, it is plain.
I am a Biblical Christian first and a Catholic second. When the RCC and the Bible differ, I abdicate to the Bible. I don’t win a lot of friends that way, but I have to speak the truth whenever given the opportunity.
So you are saying the the RCC and you don’t always get the same meaning out of the Bible?
There was no ‘mistranslation’ per se; there’s the Mormon church, however, using Christian terms to describe very un-Christian things.
Or…simply putting the meaning back in that was lost.
You’re making baptism much more difficult than it has to be; since water is such a powerful image in the Bible, giving life, sustaining it, and then taking it away, it’s as much symbolic as it is necessary in the process. To be baptised is to make a public display of a rebirth into the ways of Christ, nothing more, nothing less.
Baptism, under certain circumstances, isn’t necessary for salvation, as we see demonstrated in the example of the thief crucified next to Jesus.
John 3:5 seems to make baptism a requirement.
The theif on the cross was not promised salvation, but only that he would be taught the gospel.
Jesus stated that “today, thou shalt be with me in Paradise”, however upon His resurrection, He still had not ascended to His Father. So if you are equating Paradise with heaven, then the Father was not present in heaven.
While I plan to have my daughter baptised Catholic, it’s not necessary because she has no ability to choose between good and evil as of this point. I’m going to do so for tradition’s sake, not because there’s any Biblical standard for it being required.
A prime example of how meaning has been removed from the Bible.
I’m not calling the Biblical God an idiot, but rather the little god of Mormonism; the two aren’t the same. My God promised that his Word would stand forever (Isa. 40:8) but yours couldn’t keep it together and let it leave the earth for some 1,900 years before gathering a group of liars, frauds, thieves, and miscreants to ‘restore’ his church. What was he doing in that span of time?
Well you see, there is only one God, and my God is the same as your God, so any time you use such language against my God, you are merely speaking of “your” God too.
“…liars, frauds, thieves and miscreants”? The Pharisees and lawyers used similar language against the Lord. Coming from you, that is a compliment.
You then use that as a launching pad for claiming authority for your church because it claims to have modern prophets. Okay, I’ll meet you there and ask you this: how many false prophecies does it take to be a false prophet? And how can you continue to claim Joseph Smith as a prophet with a perfect 0% accuracy rating?
I get it. You don’t believe. That is okay. This thread isn’t about getting you to believe. I simply answered a question.