J
JamesK
Guest
I was talking to my uncle (who belongs to a nondenominational church) about salvation. He said that Jesus has forgiven his sins and he does not need to worry about them. I mentioned 1 John 5: 16-17 (as follows):
If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly.
He responded that this applies only to those who have not accepted Christ. I never heard this argument so it stopped me in my tracks. I can only assume that this argument is based on the next verse (1 John 5: 18): “We know that no one begotten by God sins; but the one begotten by God he protects, and the evil one cannot touch him.”
This rings true on a superficial level, but I know it is not what the Church teaches. What is the proper interpretation of these verses?
If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly.
He responded that this applies only to those who have not accepted Christ. I never heard this argument so it stopped me in my tracks. I can only assume that this argument is based on the next verse (1 John 5: 18): “We know that no one begotten by God sins; but the one begotten by God he protects, and the evil one cannot touch him.”
This rings true on a superficial level, but I know it is not what the Church teaches. What is the proper interpretation of these verses?