C
Catholicism1998
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I have been wondering this for a long time. If you show remorse when a person is so mixing mortal sin then have you sinned because there was not full consent.
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Y
Yearning_Heart
Guest
Do you mean ‘if you have remorse while commiting a mortal sin, is it still a mortal sin?’I have been wondering this for a long time. If you show remorse when a person is so mixing mortal sin then have you sinned because there was not full consent.
I would say that feeling remorse is your conscience letting you know that the act is wrong, and so would contribute to your knowledge of the act being wrong. I would suspect that it could still be a mortal sin.
In regards to consent, I’m not sure how remorse decreases it. I think consent is decreased if the act is habitual or addictive, for instance, and possibly feelings of ‘enjoyment’ of the sin (which makes it hard to avoid doing it), but a feeling that works against committing the act itself…hmm, maybe not.
Remorse is a good thing and a sign of a healthy conscience. If the act is still committed, follow up on it and go to a priest for confession and discuss it with him. He can clarify if it is mortal or venial, but also the Sacrament will give extra grace to help to avoid/resist that sin in the future.
J
JRKH
Guest
Short answer is NO it will not mitigate culpability for the mortal sin.
The Catechism says:
"Mortal sin requires full knowledge and complete consent.
It defines "full knowledge as: *knowledge of the sinful character of the act, of its opposition to God’s law.{/I}
and it defines “complete consent” as: a consent sufficiently deliberate to be a personal choice".
Now don’t get me wrong…In overcoming habitual sin such remorse is not a bad thing. It can help you to hate the sin - and your own weakness - even more. If will drive you to contrition more quickly and help you to seek reconciliation as soon as possible.
It is evidence of grace working in you…but it is not a “loophole” that makes a mortal sin venial.
NOTE: The above is just a general view from my understanding of the issues involved. As with anything of this sort, it is best to discuss specific cases with a trusted Confessor.
Peace
James*
The Catechism says:
"Mortal sin requires full knowledge and complete consent.
It defines "full knowledge as: *knowledge of the sinful character of the act, of its opposition to God’s law.{/I}
and it defines “complete consent” as: a consent sufficiently deliberate to be a personal choice".
Now don’t get me wrong…In overcoming habitual sin such remorse is not a bad thing. It can help you to hate the sin - and your own weakness - even more. If will drive you to contrition more quickly and help you to seek reconciliation as soon as possible.
It is evidence of grace working in you…but it is not a “loophole” that makes a mortal sin venial.
NOTE: The above is just a general view from my understanding of the issues involved. As with anything of this sort, it is best to discuss specific cases with a trusted Confessor.
Peace
James*
S
St_Hilary
Guest
I have been wondering this for a long time. If you show remorse when a person is so mixing mortal sin then have you sinned because there was not full consent.
I am nor sur what you are asking?
If the person is in mortal sin,k why should you show remorse? She is the one in sin.
I am very complexed about your question–sorry.
God love you
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