You build me a time machine and I’ll go and find out. If there were, they obviously had some conception of what music was about.
I would agree. They would have a conception of what music was about, but they probably didn’t have a
science of music … i.e. they didn’t have a organized system of terminology and concepts used to describe the complex details of music. Hence, musicians can still be a musician, even if they don’t have a scientific understanding of it. Knowledge can be organized into a system (i.e. a science) or not organized into a system (not science). Hence, the distinction between the original definition of science and other knowledge is meaningful.
Google doesn’t seem to agree with you. Systematic philosophy is described as a philosophy of science, not as a science.
I don’t know what you mean by “Google.” I need you to be a little more specific than that.
I mean that pseudoscience does not pass mustard when peer reviewed.
Works of philosophy have been peer-reviewed and many of those peers consider philosophy of a science … not a pseudoscience. This is because the word “science” has meant “an organized body of knowledge” and not simply “an organized body of knowledge concerning only the physical world.” Sorry.
Physics puts observational data above logic, so I would imagine that must make it illogical, wouldn’t you?
I don’t think physics is illogical.
You think physics is illogical. I believe physics depends on logic (because, of course, you need more than just observational data … you need to draw conclusions from it using logic). But … you don’t think physics uses logic at all right? That’s what you said, right? So, once again … just to be clear …
is physics illogical?
It is what any scientist who isn’t a fraud and a crank does.
You’re imposing your narrow definition of “science” on everyone again, even though it is not accepted by everyone, nor has it been the definition for the majority of that word’s history.
But being that logic is superior to science and all encompassing, surely that is exactly what you and your friends here have been advocating?
Why? Why does that logically follow? What are you talking about?
I would say that to draw ANY conclusion you need to use logic (and so all sciences need logic). But you need more than just the formal logical rules to conclude something. You need actual
matter in an inference. I can’t conclude the rate at which a thing falls by force of gravity merely by logical rules. In physics, I need data. However, with the data, I then use logic to conclude something from that. You, on the other hand, seem to think that only data is necessary for physics. That is ridiculous, I hope you know.
Math on the other hand, while it doesn’t require observable data per se, it needs, at the very least, the concept of numbers in order to conclude things with logic. Still, it is an organized system of knowledge. Hence, math, even though it doesn’t use observable data per se, is still a science.
And what I am saying is that while your definition may have been fit for purpose back in the days while our Lord was walking the Earth, nowadays in the modern era it simply will not do.
The word “science” has had its original definition for the vast majority of time
after Jesus’ life. It’s always been fit for its original definition because it’s still widely used that way. And, just curious, why would it be fit then and not now?
It is not precise enough, it is not pertinent enough.
Not precise enough for what? Not pertinent enough for what? What are you talking about?
The maths in his experiment is Mickey Mouse stuff.
Boyles Law: pV = k
Code:
p denotes the pressure of the system.
V denotes the volume of the gas.
k is a constant value representative of the pressure and volume of the system.
He depended on observations of experiments done with physical apparatus to do his experiments. As a matter of fact, what he was doing when he discovered his relationship was working on building a pump.
I never denied that observations and physical apparatus was necessary. But I will say that such things are insufficient. You need math for example. And math is not a physical science, and yet Boyle depended on it for his. Physics requires math. Do you deny that?
I have already told you, time and time again, that the definition you have is no longer fit for purpose because it is too vague and impertinent to define modern science.
You call that a reason? Why is it vague and why is it impertinent to define “modern science”? You’re just making things up, and you don’t give any reason.
The fact is, “science” has meant “an organized body of knowledge” forever and is still used that way widely. That is reason enough to still use that definition. To say that it’s too vague and impertinent doesn’t mean anything (unless you can explain yourself). What you and many others are doing is something equivalent to a group of people saying “From now on, the word ‘box’ can only be defined as containers made specifically of cardboard … because to include all containers would be too vague and impertinent.” Obviously, people don’t have to listen to them. People can use the word “box” as they like, and a group of psychos have no authority to tell them differently.