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Novocastrian
Guest
Christians talk about Christ being fully man because one of the early, heretical ways of articulating Christ’s divinity and incarnation was to suggest that God’s Word animated a human body in lieu of a soul. This, however, would have made Christ less than human; orthodox Christians want Christ to have had a soul as well as a body so that in assuming our nature - physical and spiritual - he redeemed and saved it.What does “fully man” mean in this context? Does it mean G-d Incarnate as a corporeal being drained of His divinity or fully man, warts and all? Since Jesus was sinless, how can He be fully man in the strictly human sense? If it means the former, how can Jesus also be fully G-d, IOW both divine and human simultaneously? Further, did Jesus ever tell His Apostles that He was both fully G-d AND fully man? If not, who determined this?
This is one of the ways in which Greek theological terminology is far more precise than Latin. In Latin (and most Western languages) we refer to Christ’s incarnation, the stem being the Latin word for flesh. In Greek, one refers to his ενανθρωπεσις, his becoming human as opposed to just flesh.