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adolfo123
Guest
I have heard that the word lord in luke 1:43 is the same word for Lord which is reference to Yahweh is this so???
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OpheliaOfAcadia
Guest
The Mother of the Lord is the Mother of God. I don’t mean to sound mean, but surely you have learned of the Trinity; Father, Son, Holy Spirit. One God, three persons. It is important to take into consideration translation issues between Aramaic and Greek and English; someone else would be more knowledgible to speak of those issues other than me. But yes, She said Yes to being the Mother of God, and this is Yahweh. “Yes, my God, my Lord, my Son.” Yes to being the Lord God incarnate on Earth in the Flesh. So, in the end, how do you differenciate between these words?
IMHO
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Peace be with you all, now and forever.
IMHO
)Peace be with you all, now and forever.
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eric_sammons
Guest
The term “Lord” in the New Testament comes from the Greek word “kyrios.” This term had a multitude of meanings, all signifying respect. For example, it could be equivalent to the English word “sir” or it could be used by a slave to their master or a wife to her husband. It also could be used to address a divine being and acknowledge his divinity. The context of the word determines how it is used.
In the Greek translation of the OT (the Septuagint), the term “kyrios” was used in place of the divine name, which was unspeakable to a Jew. Thus, even in Jewish circles of the first century, “kyrios” could refer to the one God. Again, context is what determines meaning. For example, in Philippians 2:6-11, Paul concludes by stating that “Jesus Christ is Lord.” In the context of this hymn, Paul is clearly attributing divinity to Christ and making him on the same level as God. But not all uses of the term “Lord” in the NT are so clearly referring to deity, so you have to be careful not to assume it is referring to a divine being.
In the context of Luke 1:43, it appears clear that Elizabeth is referring to a divine being - what else could “my Lord” mean? She would have no reason to reverence the child of her cousin with such a term unless she believed him to have some direct relationship to God Himself.
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NotWorthy
Guest
Let’s see…
The word Lord, of course means “God”. But it can also mean “Master”, which is what some people claim Elizabeth meant. Could this be what Elizabeth meant? Well, let’s go to the context and usage of the word “Lord” in Luke’s Gospel.
The word “Lord” is used seventeen times in the first chapter of Luke (80 verses). All the other times (16 of them), it is clear that “Lord” means “God”. For Luke (acknowledged by all scholars to be very fluent in the Greek language), to have meant that this one time “Lord” meant “Master”, he would have indicated it, most probably by using a more accurate and less mis-interpreted word, like maybe, “Master”.
The word Lord, of course means “God”. But it can also mean “Master”, which is what some people claim Elizabeth meant. Could this be what Elizabeth meant? Well, let’s go to the context and usage of the word “Lord” in Luke’s Gospel.
The word “Lord” is used seventeen times in the first chapter of Luke (80 verses). All the other times (16 of them), it is clear that “Lord” means “God”. For Luke (acknowledged by all scholars to be very fluent in the Greek language), to have meant that this one time “Lord” meant “Master”, he would have indicated it, most probably by using a more accurate and less mis-interpreted word, like maybe, “Master”.
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