F
fabio_rocha
Guest
I know JPII spoke ex-cathedra about this issue, I know he as pope, keeper of the keys of heaven (Mt 16:18-19), “locked down” the impossibility of women to become priests. I know the Church Fathers (and the Didascalia document) condemned such possibility. But here’s my question…
One of the arguments to explain the impossibility for women to become priests is that "Jesus chose male apostles, no females at all, to be his representatives on earth and afterwards the apostles appointed their successors (all men; then those chose other men, so on and so forth down the line). But in Mt 18:18 Jesus says to the church “whatever you bound or loose on earth will be bound or loose in heaven”. So why couldn’t the church, by the use of this legitimate power, “bound on earth” the possibility of ordaining women? To say, as the typical argument goes, that “we don’t have any expressed authority for such thing from Jesus” sounds illogical because the church can, in fact, turn that possibility into a reality by her given divine authority because, basically, whatever she decides to do in communion has Jesus approval. So, why the church follow the course that she did? I mean, we didn’t had any expressed condemnation of slavery by Jesus but yet, after some centuries of existence, we defined as sinful…
One of the arguments to explain the impossibility for women to become priests is that "Jesus chose male apostles, no females at all, to be his representatives on earth and afterwards the apostles appointed their successors (all men; then those chose other men, so on and so forth down the line). But in Mt 18:18 Jesus says to the church “whatever you bound or loose on earth will be bound or loose in heaven”. So why couldn’t the church, by the use of this legitimate power, “bound on earth” the possibility of ordaining women? To say, as the typical argument goes, that “we don’t have any expressed authority for such thing from Jesus” sounds illogical because the church can, in fact, turn that possibility into a reality by her given divine authority because, basically, whatever she decides to do in communion has Jesus approval. So, why the church follow the course that she did? I mean, we didn’t had any expressed condemnation of slavery by Jesus but yet, after some centuries of existence, we defined as sinful…