Muslims: Can Islam co-exist with any other world religion?

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Perhaps they do not see the flesh as waging war against the spirit, but only the spirit animating the flesh to fulfill the “prophet’s” words.

Why they would choose not to believe Jesus, who was not touched by satan at his birth, and follow Muhammad, who was, is beyond me. That is a foundational contradiction.
I thought they believed every prophet was untouched by Satan at their birth.
 
**I’m growing a little tired of reminding posters of the rules on inter-religious dialogue. If the recent news events have you so worked up, you cannot post charitably, then I suggest you not get involved in threads such as this.
Stay on topic.
Post charitably. **
 
I’ll give it another try, any more violations and the thread is closed.
 
Muslim rule doesn’t mean “hey a Muslim is in charge,” it means “Islam is the foundation for governance because it is from God and only a Muslim can be in charge.”
I’ve never heard anything like that. Can you give me evidence to back this up such as a passage from one of the Classical books of Fiqh?
Yes, and said self-governance was only allowed if the non-Muslim community a)belonged to the category of non-Muslim faiths that were deemed by Islamic teaching to be allowed the usage of dhimma b) said community followed the restrictions placed upon them and the practice of their faith under the dhimma system. You also left out the part about who’s law get’s followed if one party of a dispute happens to be Muslim.
  1. If you actually look at the different Muslim nations throughout history, Dhimmi status has been given quite freely. The Qur’an lists the Jews, Christians, and the Sabians as being the Ahl al Kitab, the people of the book, which have such protection, and as Muslims came into contact with more religions, by means of Qiyas (analogical reasoning) Muslim scholars classified any religion that has some sort of scripture as falling into the category of protected religions, and they included Jains, Hindus, Buddhists, and many many more religions under this category.
  2. You say that the dhimma system puts restrictions on their faith. Can you give me some examples of such restrictions and how they equate to “co-existence based upon Islam being the dominate [sic] faith and the non-Islamic faiths being the subjugated ones.”?
“Comparable to” does not equate to “the same as”; nor does it address the fact that the Zakat is a religious requirement. You are in effect trying to argue that since Muslims had a religious requirement to pay Zakat that it was perfectly just to make non-Muslims who do not have this religious requirement to pay Jizya. This isn’t even touching on the fact that the reasoning and usage of the Jizya had nothing to do with the reasoning and usage of the Zakat.
The Zakat is a religious requirement, yes, but it wasn’t a voluntary thing. The State collected it as a mandatory tax imposed on all financially able Muslims, and the Jizya was also collected as a tax. They were roughly the same in value, so I don’t see how that equates to subjugation.

Also, as I previously said, the Muslim countries of today have abolished the Jizya tax, so it’s not really relevant anymore.
Yes, that deals with the conquest of the world by force of arms. There are other methods by which to conquest the world. One method, for instance, would be the slow erasure of non-Muslim faiths within the Muslim community. The only requirement for this would be time (this method is slow) and the application of Islamic law concerning restrictions placed on non-Muslims that qualify for dhimmi status. The world being just the “House of Islam” is one of the end aims of Islam.
Well if you are going to conquer the world by waiting for people within your lands to convert and not actually do any conquering then you’re never going to conquer the world. If the Netherlands decided one day to conquer the world but they were going to do it by waiting for everyone within their borders to turn Dutch, world conquest just isn’t going to happen.
 
I’ve never heard anything like that. Can you give me evidence to back this up such as a passage from one of the Classical books of Fiqh?
  1. If you actually look at the different Muslim nations throughout history, Dhimmi status has been given quite freely. The Qur’an lists the Jews, Christians, and the Sabians as being the Ahl al Kitab, the people of the book, which have such protection, and as Muslims came into contact with more religions, by means of Qiyas (analogical reasoning) Muslim scholars classified any religion that has some sort of scripture as falling into the category of protected religions, and they included Jains, Hindus, Buddhists, and many many more religions under this category.
  2. You say that the dhimma system puts restrictions on their faith. Can you give me some examples of such restrictions and how they equate to “co-existence based upon Islam being the dominate [sic] faith and the non-Islamic faiths being the subjugated ones.”?
The Zakat is a religious requirement, yes, but it wasn’t a voluntary thing. The State collected it as a mandatory tax imposed on all financially able Muslims, and the Jizya was also collected as a tax. They were roughly the same in value, so I don’t see how that equates to subjugation.

Also, as I previously said, the Muslim countries of today have abolished the Jizya tax, so it’s not really relevant anymore.

Well if you are going to conquer the world by waiting for people within your lands to convert and not actually do any conquering then you’re never going to conquer the world. If the Netherlands decided one day to conquer the world but they were going to do it by waiting for everyone within their borders to turn Dutch, world conquest just isn’t going to happen.
While I research the above (do you happen to have any links for the sources you wish me to use?), let me ask this- What does Islam teach to do with non-Muslim communities that refuse to participate in a dhimmi contract?
 
While I research the above (do you happen to have any links for the sources you wish me to use?), let me ask this- What does Islam teach to do with non-Muslim communities that refuse to participate in a dhimmi contract?
Bakmoon- Would this site meet your source request- shafiifiqh.com ?
 
While I research the above (do you happen to have any links for the sources you wish me to use?), let me ask this- What does Islam teach to do with non-Muslim communities that refuse to participate in a dhimmi contract?
What do you mean by a “dhimmi contract”? The status of dhimmi is just a classification of people as being a protected group.
Bakmoon- Would this site meet your source request- shafiifiqh.com ?
I’m looking for quotes from the actual classical books of Fiqh. Each of the four Madhahib (i.e. Hanafi, Shafi’i, Maliki, and Hanbali) has books that are generally accepted within that school. I am asking for either a quote from such a book or a generally accepted modern book that is summarizing the overall position of one of the schools.
 
What do you mean by a “dhimmi contract”? The status of dhimmi is just a classification of people as being a protected group.

The Dhimmi contract- What a person who is classified as a part of a protected group is granted by the Muslim community and what is expected of them.

Under the teachings of Islam, what is the Muslim community supposed to do regarding those non-Muslims who, though they qualify for “protection” (not all groups qualify as such; these groups either convert, are forced to convert, leave, forced to leave, put to death, etc), refuse such status and/or refuse the conditions placed upon them (such as not being able to publically display their faith or build new places of worship)?

I’m looking for quotes from the actual classical books of Fiqh. Each of the four Madhahib (i.e. Hanafi, Shafi’i, Maliki, and Hanbali) has books that are generally accepted within that school. I am asking for either a quote from such a book or a generally accepted modern book that is summarizing the overall position of one of the schools.
Yes and I’m asking you for a link to those works that you would find acceptable. I don’t have the works myself and I’m not going to spend money (I’ve found sites that would allow me access to those works for money and/or will sell me the works) on it. If you can’t find such a link for me, does the site I linked qualify to you as a reliable source for information for this discussion?
 
The Dhimmi contract- What a person who is classified as a part of a protected group is granted by the Muslim community and what is expected of them.

Under the teachings of Islam, what is the Muslim community supposed to do regarding those non-Muslims who, though they qualify for “protection” (not all groups qualify as such; these groups either convert, are forced to convert, leave, forced to leave, put to death, etc), refuse such status and/or refuse the conditions placed upon them (such as not being able to publically display their faith or build new places of worship)?
  1. As I have previously stated, the Muslim scholars have been of the opinion that through Qiyas, or analogical reasoning, any group of religious people who have some kind of scripture are classified as people of the book and receive protection.
  2. Can you give any proof that such conditions are in fact required by Classical Fiqh?
Yes and I’m asking you for a link to those works that you would find acceptable. I don’t have the works myself and I’m not going to spend money (I’ve found sites that would allow me access to those works for money and/or will sell me the works) on it. If you can’t find such a link for me, does the site I linked qualify to you as a reliable source for information for this discussion?
I am willing to accept that this site gives a fair summary of the works it cites, so if it cites a book saying that such a book teaches something or that such a book is regarded as being representative of the Shafi’i madhhab then I am willing to accept it. If the site gives a Fatwah without giving such citation then I won’t accept such a position as being representative of the Shafi’i madhhab. I think that is fair.
 
  1. As I have previously stated, the Muslim scholars have been of the opinion that through Qiyas, or analogical reasoning, any group of religious people who have some kind of scripture are classified as people of the book and receive protection.
  2. Can you give any proof that such conditions are in fact required by Classical Fiqh?
I am willing to accept that this site gives a fair summary of the works it cites, so if it cites a book saying that such a book teaches something or that such a book is regarded as being representative of the Shafi’i madhhab then I am willing to accept it. If the site gives a Fatwah without giving such citation then I won’t accept such a position as being representative of the Shafi’i madhhab. I think that is fair.
shafiifiqh.com/maktabah/relianceoftraveller.pdf

See Section 11- “NON-MUSLIM SUBJECTS OF THE ISLAMIC STATE (AHL AL-DHIMMA)”
 
I think the answer to the original question depends on what muslim you ask.

remember, islam has no central teaching authority. it only has the Koran and as with any written document, the Koran is open to a myriad of interpretations.

so, there is no definitive answer to the question. it totally depends upon the muslim you ask.
 
shafiifiqh.com/maktabah/relianceoftraveller.pdf

See Section 11- “NON-MUSLIM SUBJECTS OF THE ISLAMIC STATE (AHL AL-DHIMMA)”
I’m familiar with this book. It is one of the standard summary books of Fiqh for the Shafi’i Madhhab. It doesn’t say anything about the Dhimma having to acknowledge Islam as the foundation of society and governance. All it says is that non-Muslims have to follow the ‘rules of Islam’ which the inline parenthetical note identifies with the seven conditions laid out in §11.5. I think we can both agree that the rules laid down are wrong, but I don’t think that they are substantially worse than the restrictions certain Church councils laid on Jews and Muslims in Europe for example.
 
I’m familiar with this book. It is one of the standard summary books of Fiqh for the Shafi’i Madhhab. It doesn’t say anything about the Dhimma having to acknowledge Islam as the foundation of society and governance. All it says is that non-Muslims have to follow the ‘rules of Islam’ which the inline parenthetical note identifies with the seven conditions laid out in §11.5. I think we can both agree that the rules laid down are wrong, but I don’t think that they are substantially worse than the restrictions certain Church councils laid on Jews and Muslims in Europe for example.
-Ok, I’ll do some more research regarding Islam being the foundation of society and governance under the dimma contract. Such should be rather apparent by the conditions laid upon the “protected” people listed in that source. I should also be rather apparent regarding what actions where to be taken if a non-Muslim violated said conditions. The last part of Section 11, I believe 11.12, should give a clear indication to the answer to this. If one (the one here being a non-Muslim) violates the conditions of the dhimma contract, one is given the same options that Islam proscribes to prisoners taken in war.

-Comparing this to the unjust persecution and discrimination of Jews and Muslims under the Church (and here I’m just going with the Church, it’s more complex than that, but that’s another topic) only works if said unjust persecutions and discriminations are what the Church actually taught and had similar codifications within Christian holy works. This is not the case.
 
-Ok, I’ll do some more research regarding Islam being the foundation of society and governance under the dimma contract. Such should be rather apparent by the conditions laid upon the “protected” people listed in that source. I should also be rather apparent regarding what actions where to be taken if a non-Muslim violated said conditions. The last part of Section 11, I believe 11.12, should give a clear indication to the answer to this. If one (the one here being a non-Muslim) violates the conditions of the dhimma contract, one is given the same options that Islam proscribes to prisoners taken in war.
It is true that it states in 11.11 the following:
When a subject’s agreement with the state has been violated, the caliph chooses between the four alternatives mentioned above in connection with prisoners of war
But note that it says this only applies when the subject’s agreement has been violated. What does the text mean by this term? Section 11.9 defines this as if they violate the rules of Islam (which the text previously identifies with the conditions laid down in 11.5) or refuses to pay the Jizya tax, and section 10 defines 5 more things which break the agreement such as adultery, spying, converting Muslims, murdering a Muslim, or blasphemy.

The text exhaustively lists these 17 conditions (the seven conditions in subsection 5, refusing to pay the Jizya, and the five conditions of subsection 10) as constituting the violations of the agreement.
-Comparing this to the unjust persecution and discrimination of Jews and Muslims under the Church (and here I’m just going with the Church, it’s more complex than that, but that’s another topic) only works if said unjust persecutions and discriminations are what the Church actually taught and had similar codifications within Christian holy works. This is not the case.
Actually many such rules were laid down by the decree of local church councils, which although are not infallible, was part of the ordinary Magisterium of the Church as exercised at that time.

For about 300 years the local councils of Toledo in Spain laid down many canons punishing the Jews. The worst in my opinion was Canon 8 of the 17th Council of Toledo in which the Synod of Bishops decreed that the Jews were to have all of their property confiscated and then taken as slaves with their children to be raised as Christians.

Some of these restrictions were later confirmed by Ecumenical Councils. For example the IV Council of the Lateran stated in Canon 69 reaffirmed the third council of Toledo’s ban on Jews holding public office and further stipulated that anyone who helps a Jew gain public office after receiving a warning should be punished. Canon 68 of the same council required Jews and Muslims to dress distinctively, and banned them from appearing in public at all during Holy Week.

Does this mean that someone could point to the Catholic church and say that it teaches religious subjugation (like some in the new atheist movement claim it does)? Of course not. The Catholic Church no longer says anything like that. Similarly most Muslim countries no longer have such requirements on non-Muslims so we should similarly look at those rules as not being considered normative anymore by most Muslims. That’s not to say we shouldn’t make our voices heard when discrimination against non-Muslims does occur in Muslim countries, but we shouldn’t paint all Muslims with the same brush in such an instance either.
 
It is true that it states in 11.11 the following:

But note that it says this only applies when the subject’s agreement has been violated. What does the text mean by this term? Section 11.9 defines this as if they violate the rules of Islam (which the text previously identifies with the conditions laid down in 11.5) or refuses to pay the Jizya tax, and section 10 defines 5 more things which break the agreement such as adultery, spying, converting Muslims, murdering a Muslim, or blasphemy.
Of note is that your above proves that the basis for the “protected” status of non-Muslims is the supremacy of Islam and it’s usage for the foundation of society and governance. “Protected” non-Muslims are in violation of the conditions of their “protected” status if they violate the rules of Islam, refuse to pay an Islamic tax (Jizya), and the list of specific crimes against not other citizens, but against other citizens who are Muslim.

Also of note is what actions are allowed against non-Muslims who violate the conditions of their “protected” status. The author specifically refers to these non-Muslims in violation are to be handled in a similar manner to prisoners of war, not in a similar manner to other criminals.

As for the Jizya tax, you’ve earlier supported it’s usage as not unjust because Muslims had to pay a different tax. This reasoning is faulty because the purpose and usage of each tax is different.
The text exhaustively lists these 17 conditions (the seven conditions in subsection 5, refusing to pay the Jizya, and the five conditions of subsection 10) as constituting the violations of the agreement.
And, once again, what does Islam mandate for those individuals or groups who refuse to enter into a dhimma status?

Actually many such rules were laid down by the decree of local church councils, which although are not infallible, was part of the ordinary Magisterium of the Church as exercised at that time.

For about 300 years the local councils of Toledo in Spain laid down many canons punishing the Jews. The worst in my opinion was Canon 8 of the 17th Council of Toledo in which the Synod of Bishops decreed that the Jews were to have all of their property confiscated and then taken as slaves with their children to be raised as Christians.

Some of these restrictions were later confirmed by Ecumenical Councils. For example the IV Council of the Lateran stated in Canon 69 reaffirmed the third council of Toledo’s ban on Jews holding public office and further stipulated that anyone who helps a Jew gain public office after receiving a warning should be punished. Canon 68 of the same council required Jews and Muslims to dress distinctively, and banned them from appearing in public at all during Holy Week.

Does this mean that someone could point to the Catholic church and say that it teaches religious subjugation (like some in the new atheist movement claim it does)? Of course not. The Catholic Church no longer says anything like that. Similarly most Muslim countries no longer have such requirements on non-Muslims so we should similarly look at those rules as not being considered normative anymore by most Muslims. That’s not to say we shouldn’t make our voices heard when discrimination against non-Muslims does occur in Muslim countries, but we shouldn’t paint all Muslims with the same brush in such an instance either.
Your above is based on the actions of members of a faith and not on what that faith actually teaches. You need to show where each faith has similar actual teachings and/or how my point concerning the unjustness/etc of the dhimmi contract and system isn’t based on the actual teachings of Islam.
 
Yes, with said co-existence based upon Islam being the dominate faith and the non-Islamic faiths being the subjugated ones. The reverse of this situation is not allowed/or allowed only until it can be reversed under Islamic teachings. Islam has to be the dominate party for any co-existence with other faiths under Islamic teachings. This is not just co-existence, which is what I assume the OP is referring to in his query.
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Yes it is, and sharia law follows, thus slavery. Doesn’t get any more authentic than Isis. Following Mohammed to the letter. May be the real Islam. Hey, I believe them. :yup:

Cant fault them for being straight up front. No deception there. what you see is what you get.

They are emulating Mohammed?
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No. I don’t believe Islam can co-exist (peacefully) with another dominate religion or religions. It’s my understanding that Islam will only be at peace when it enslaves all other religions through fear, intimidations and…
 
If I tell you, you won’t believe me, because you’ve already arrived at a conclusion (as you illustrated in your first paragraph). All I see is fear coming from you. If you have fear, you can’t understand anything I say because there’s too much static in your energy.
 
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