W
whomper
Guest
As I understand it, the Hadith contains a famous pronouncement made by the Prophet Muhammad on his return from the battle of Badr, which marked the end of his military campaign against the polytheists: “We are finished with the lesser jihad (jihad kabeer); now we are starting the greater jihad (jihad akbar).” Supposedly, this division of jihad came to be interpreted as a transition from physical force to moral struggle.
But Ibn Taymiyya (b. ~1263) declared Muhammad’s understanding to be in error, and thus we have the terrorist divisions of and in Islam.
My question is this: How can a man who lived so long after Muhammad make such declarations without being beheaded and buried with the pigs? Isn’t any such contradiction of Muhammad considered sinful?
And I seem to recall that Ibn T said that later, Muhammad recanted his explanation - thus justifying the continued violence (jihad) against the non-believers.
Where is the answer to this? Did Muhammad actually further define jihad to move it from violence to moral teachings and conversions through argument?
And why, today, do any Muslims condone teachings which contradict the Prophet?

But Ibn Taymiyya (b. ~1263) declared Muhammad’s understanding to be in error, and thus we have the terrorist divisions of and in Islam.
My question is this: How can a man who lived so long after Muhammad make such declarations without being beheaded and buried with the pigs? Isn’t any such contradiction of Muhammad considered sinful?
And I seem to recall that Ibn T said that later, Muhammad recanted his explanation - thus justifying the continued violence (jihad) against the non-believers.
Where is the answer to this? Did Muhammad actually further define jihad to move it from violence to moral teachings and conversions through argument?
And why, today, do any Muslims condone teachings which contradict the Prophet?