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Is it the dogmatic teaching of the Church that there is no valid Eucharist outside the Catholic Church?
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
Anglican orders are invalid. This was formally pronounced by Leo XIII in his 1896 Bull, Apostolicae CuraeIs it the dogmatic teaching of the Church that there is no valid Eucharist outside the Catholic Church?
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
This was certainly true in 1896, however since then I have heard they have been co-ordaining with bishops of the union of Utrecht, who I think do have valid orders. Orders may still be lacking in Anglicanism for other reasons however.Anglican orders are invalid. This was formally pronounced by Leo XIII in his 1896 Bull, Apostolicae Curae
Unless the Church is in communion with Rome, It is not valid, i.e. the body and blood of Christ.Is it the dogmatic teaching of the Church that there is no valid Eucharist outside the Catholic Church?
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
Not true. Orthodox sacraments are perfectly valid.Unless the Church is in communion with Rome, It is not valid, i.e. the body and blood of Christ.
This was re-validated as recently as the 80s by Cardinal Ratzinger. I will have to look for the specific source for an exact quote.This was certainly true in 1896, however since then I have heard they have been co-ordaining with bishops of the union of Utrecht, who I think do have valid orders. Orders may still be lacking in Anglicanism for other reasons however.
the official teaching of the Church is that the Eucharist is present in:Is it the dogmatic teaching of the Church that there is no valid Eucharist outside the Catholic Church?
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
There can be no wiggle room, friend. Would you like wiggling room on the morality of killing a baby in the 2nd week or 3rd week? Would you like some wide breathing space with regards to killing or murdering? Would you enjoy some foot room while trying to decide whether a war was just or unjust? Things must be defined properly and exactly for the Christian man to be informed. We are here to believe the Truth of our Lord Jesus Christ as revealed through His Church.The reason I ask, this is a major sticking-point for me.
I desire to follow the infallible teachings of Rome, however, how can I do such when I believe an important aspect of doctrine is incorrect? I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner. I cannot accept, however hard I may wish to, that the most important impartation of grace is restricted to just Rome (along with those in communion with).
It seems to be splitting hairs to say that one may be saved outside the Church, (however difficult) but not be able to receive Grace in Christendom’s most important sacrament. Especially when it is so clear that Grace is essential to salvation.
Is there any “wiggle-room” in the teaching of the magisterium on this point?
Those in communion with Rome and the Orthodox, who soon will be by the grace of God.Not true. Orthodox sacraments are perfectly valid.
We are bound by the Sacraments; God is not. If He willed to impart grace to you and your family through the reception of Eucharist in the Anglican church, He was and is perfectly able to do so. That does not mean that Anglican Eucharist is valid, that is, actually IS the Body, Blood, Soul & Divinity of Jesus Christ. It simply means that God chose that occasion to give graces to you and your family.I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner.
What do you mean by grace? Grace is not that fuzzy squishy feeling.I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner. I cannot accept, however hard I may wish to, that the most important impartation of grace is restricted to just Rome.
grace comes through the Sacraments, though not only through the Sacraments… but a great amount of it comes to us in this way. It can reach non Catholics but they receive less graces. This is because the Catholic Church is the Church that Jesus started… all Christians were supposed to have the Sacraments - only they separated from the Church.The reason I ask, this is a major sticking-point for me.
I desire to follow the infallible teachings of Rome, however, how can I do such when I believe an important aspect of doctrine is incorrect? I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner. I cannot accept, however hard I may wish to, that the most important impartation of grace is restricted to just Rome (along with those in communion with).
It seems to be splitting hairs to say that one may be saved outside the Church, (however difficult) but not be able to receive Grace in Christendom’s most important sacrament. Especially when it is so clear that Grace is essential to salvation.
Is there any “wiggle-room” in the teaching of the magisterium on this point?
There is a twofold issue to deal with here.The reason I ask, this is a major sticking-point for me.
I desire to follow the infallible teachings of Rome, however, how can I do such when I believe an important aspect of doctrine is incorrect? I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner. I cannot accept, however hard I may wish to, that the most important impartation of grace is restricted to just Rome (along with those in communion with).
It seems to be splitting hairs to say that one may be saved outside the Church, (however difficult) but not be able to receive Grace in Christendom’s most important sacrament. Especially when it is so clear that Grace is essential to salvation.
Is there any “wiggle-room” in the teaching of the magisterium on this point?
I believe that the late Cardinal Hume, archbishop of Westminster, conditionally ordained some Anglican convert priests for that reason. However, it is really hard to say. To my knowledge, even Anglican bishops ordained by or with Old Catholic bishops are still of dubious validity.This was certainly true in 1896, however since then I have heard they have been co-ordaining with bishops of the union of Utrecht, who I think do have valid orders. Orders may still be lacking in Anglicanism for other reasons however.
I believe it is reaffirmed in this document: ewtn.com/library/CURIA/CDFADTU.HTMThis was re-validated as recently as the 80s by Cardinal Ratzinger. I will have to look for the specific source for an exact quote.
There have already been a number of good responses to this statement. I will focus more closely on the emphasized sentence.The reason I ask, this is a major sticking-point for me.
I desire to follow the infallible teachings of Rome, however, how can I do such when I believe an important aspect of doctrine is incorrect? I believe that I have experienced grace in receiving the Eucharist, and that my family has received grace in a like manner. I cannot accept, however hard I may wish to, that the most important impartation of grace is restricted to just Rome (along with those in communion with).
It seems to be splitting hairs to say that one may be saved outside the Church, (however difficult) but not be able to receive Grace in Christendom’s most important sacrament. Especially when it is so clear that Grace is essential to salvation.
Is there any “wiggle-room” in the teaching of the magisterium on this point?
yes it is dogmaIs it the dogmatic teaching of the Church that there is no valid Eucharist outside the Catholic Church?
Specifically, in the Anglican church.
dogma is defined by what God has revealed so that is what the Church teaches. Your opinion and mine are of no relevance whatever.The reason I ask, this is a major sticking-point for me.
I desire to follow the infallible teachings of Rome, however, how can I do such when I believe an important aspect of doctrine is incorrect?