My 12-year-old son has a Marian question

[Rob_in_Oregon]

My 12-year-old-son and I have many discussions on apologetics and theology. He posed the following challenge to our Marian beliefs, and I’m seeking advice in my answers.

1. Mary was granted efficacious grace (as opposed to “sufficient grace,” which the rest of us have) from the moment of her Immaculate Conception that preserved her from original sin and kept her from sin for the rest of her life.
2. We Catholics honor Mary for her free-will answer, “yes” to the Archangel’s annunciation.
3. Didn’t the efficacious grace cancel out her free will? If so, why do we honor her?

I realize that this gets into the whole “free will versus saving grace” argument, a la Thomism-Molinism, which has been judged a mystery. I tried to explain that to him, but I don’t think he was satisfied with my answer.

Any suggestions?

Viva Benedicto, El Papa! - Rob in Oregon

 

[holdencaulfield]

This is a good question however is just as easily refuted. The Blessed Virgin Mary is known to have Free Will. Her response to St. Gabriel the Archangel at the Annunciation is the example of her as the Co-Redemptrix. No to your question

Adam and Eve before the Fall had Free Will as well and were created without sin. They were completely sinless. Yet they still had Free Will and thus used their Free Will to sin. Although they were sinless, it doesn’t mean they still didn’t have the opportunity to sin.

The Blessed Virgin Mary was also sinless and had the opportunity to sin as well, yet she decided not to.

I hope this helps.

 

[Holly3278]

Mary could have easily have sinned if she wanted to but she didn’t. Mary, just like Jesus, Adam, and Eve had free will.

 

[holdencaulfield]

Mary could have easily have sinned if she wanted to but she didn’t. Mary, just like Jesus, Adam, and Eve had free will.

Good point. We must remember that Our Lord Christ was also without sin, yet He still had Free Will, so He could have sinned if He had wanted to. Of course this would have contradicted His nature, but nonetheless He still could have sinned.

 

[teachccd]

Good point. We must remember that Our Lord Christ was also without sin, yet He still had Free Will, so He could have sinned if He had wanted to. Of course this would have contradicted His nature, but nonetheless He still could have sinned.

Yes. Jesus has a divine will as well as a human will. In His humanity Jesus did possess free will as He does in His divinity. God has free will and we are made in His image and likeness. However God’s free will could never choose sin since that is totally contrary to His very essence. So…could Jesus have sinned???

That is a theological mystery that many have delved into but I find it difficult to imagine that Jesus’ human will could or would misalign with His divine will…

Mary is a creation of God and possesses only a human will. There is no mystery that her human will could have chosen to sin. When we speak of Mary being preserved from sin we are speaking of God and His all knowing essence. From all eternity God knew that Mary would choose to never sin. Actually, any of us potentially could do the same if we chose to remain in the grace of God. She chose to follow the will of God for her entire life. Wouldn’t you if God was born of your womb??

Mary indeed needed a savior, as she herself proclaims in Luke’s gospel, and she would only need a savior because she needed salvation. God prevented her from falling into the hole of original sin while for the rest of us He pulls us out of the hole of original sin at our baptism. Yes. Mary needed a savior and from all eternity it was known by God that her Son would be her savior. The rest was up to her and her free will…God Bless…teachccd

 

[holdencaulfield]

We know that Christ’s Divine nature and His human nature are at no way in opposition to each other so, we must assume that although His human nature could have sinned it chose not to by Free Will.

 

[jmcrae]

My 12-year-old-son and I have many discussions on apologetics and theology. He posed the following challenge to our Marian beliefs, and I’m seeking advice in my answers.

1. Mary was granted efficacious grace (as opposed to “sufficient grace,” which the rest of us have) from the moment of her Immaculate Conception that preserved her from original sin and kept her from sin for the rest of her life.
2. We Catholics honor Mary for her free-will answer, “yes” to the Archangel’s annunciation.
3. Didn’t the efficacious grace cancel out her free will? If so, why do we honor her?

I realize that this gets into the whole “free will versus saving grace” argument, a la Thomism-Molinism, which has been judged a mystery. I tried to explain that to him, but I don’t think he was satisfied with my answer.

Any suggestions?

Viva Benedicto, El Papa! - Rob in Oregon

She would not have committed any sin by saying “No.” It was freely up to her, whether to bring the Saviour into the world at that moment (or at all, I suppose), or not. God was literally giving her the choice; He was not saying “Read my mind and do what I am thinking that you should do.”

She was not being commanded to bear Jesus in her womb; she was being asked permission, whether she would allow God to do this to her. She had the free right to say “No.”

But in a sense I suppose it was inevitable that she would say yes, since to be without sin is to be full of love, and it was the fulness of love within her, for her fellow human beings, that moved her to say “Yes” to God. But it would have made no difference to her own perfection and her own salvation, if she had said “No.”

 

[kage_ar]

I’d suggest getting a copy of Fulton Sheen’s “The World’s First Love”.

His treatment of the Immaculate Conception will assist you in this discussion (and it is just a GREAT book).

 

[teachccd]

I’d suggest getting a copy of Fulton Sheen’s “The World’s First Love”.

His treatment of the Immaculate Conception will assist you in this discussion (and it is just a GREAT book).

I second that recommendation…