If i broke any of the rules for first time posters i am SORRY… =(
I just wanted to know if you could give me a little insight as to why the church in England broke off and became the Anglican church. Now I know the basic story of Henry VIII wanting to get a divorce, but if possble I would like some other information, the sociopolitical aspects that wer going on at that time, etc.
One more thing, The Anglican church is thought to be the CLOSEST to Catholicism in the Protestant realm (hence some dont consider Anglicanism all that protestant),to Roman Catholics: What are your thought on the Anglican Communion and can an Anglican in your opinion have the same relationship with God that a Roman Catholic can?
Be gentle, im new here =)
Not to worry.
Henry was after a decree of nullity, not a divorce. Such a thing was common place at the time, and in the ruling levels of society, particularly, to permit the making and breaking of dynastic marriages, while simultaneously allowing the Church to maintain control of marriage as a sacrament. There was an extensive system of church courts, and relevant law and precedent, to handle such matters.
Henry had a couple of reasons to seek the decree, relating, in the first place (chronologically), to his need for a legitimate male heir, which his wife Catherine was unable to give him (his grasp on the throne, as only the second Tudor, was shaky). And, in time, he developed another reason to want to have his marriage declared null; Anne Boleyn. The story of the quest for this decree of nullity is long and technically complicated (involves impediments, dispensations, and other things).
Henry’s case, as he presented it, was not as strong as it theoretically could have been (he ignored the strongest impediment), but it was certainly as strong as was common to find in those days, and he was fully justified in expecting that he would get his decree, as his sister Margaret (for example) had gotten hers, on flimsier ground, just as Henry was filing his case. And he likely would have, if Catherine had not happened to have been the aunt of the Holy Roman Emperor, Charles and the Pope, Clement, had not been both vacillating, and under Charles’ control, particularly after the battle of Pavia, and the sacking of Rome. End result: Henry has no chance of getting his decree. Politics ruled (as was always the case). And Henry made a political reply; he separated the Church in England from the Pope’s authority.
This step, in itself, or something like it, would likely have occurred, even without Henry, eventually. For roughly 300 years, there had been a trend, reflected in a large number of Parliamentary and Royal acts and decrees, all aimed at increasing the Royal authority over the Church, and decreasing that of any agency (Rome, that is) outside the country over it. Henry’s case was the occasion for a more dramatic assertion of this position, but it would have come, eventually, anyway; a reflection of increasing nationalism.
Neither Henry or Clement really thought of the break as permanent, originally, but that’s how it worked out.
This is the simple version.
I leave your last question to those you directed it too.
GKC