G
Gabrielle
Guest
This has been bugging me for days. I decided to take a religion course for one of my generals this year, and my professor, who is very clear about his being agnostic but a really nice guy either way, told us that the Holy Innnocents never existed. He told us that there is no historical proof that Herod ever called for the killing of these children. He mentioned a historian, I believe Josephus, who was very keen on keeping record of oppression and abuse during that time, and he told us that it made no sense that he would have left something like the murder of the innocents out. I’m not going to say this didn’t shake me a bit so I am hoping someone o here can help me clear this up? I found an explanation that says that maybe the number of the children was rather small and that the news of the slaughter didn’t reach as far because of it. I still feel like I want a more solid answer both for myself and others. Another thing that he mentioned was the sensus that took Our Lord to Bethlehem. According to what my professor said, there are no records of this sensus, which is strange considering that the Romans kept accurate records of everything. His arguments are super solid in class, and honestly I find myself unable to challenge him even to myself.