"my soul magnifies the Lord"

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Has anyone done a word or phrase study for “magnifies the Lord?”

What exactly did “magnifying” something mean in NT times?

Was it a common phrase back then, or does it just sound strange to us moderns because of translations?

Did anyone else in the OT or NT magnify the Lord, or was Mary refering to a unique aspect of her role in the Lord’s life?
 
There are striking similarities between the Virgin Mary’s song of praise in Luke 1:46-55 and Hannah’s song of praise in 1 Samuel 2:1-10.

Although there may be something deeper here, Mary’s “my soul magnifies (NAB, proclaims the greatness of) the Lord” is probably the equivalent of Hannah’s “my heart exults in the LORD.”
 
The Greek word in question is: Megaluno.

In addition to Luke 1:46, the word appears in Matthew 23:5; Luke 1:58; Acts 5:13; Acts 10:46; Acts 19:17; 2 Corinthians 10:15; Philippians 1:20.

My Stong’s Concondance defines it as:
  1. to make great, magnify
    a. metaph. to make conspicuous
  2. to deem or declare great
    a. to esteem highly, extol, laud, celebrate
  3. to get glory and praise
 
Thanks, Todd! Exactly what I needed.

You wouldn’t happen to know if the Hebrew “to know his wife” (meaning intercourse) had a koine Greek equivalent, would you?
Or did the Greek writers in NT times just write, “had sex with his wife.”

I’m seeing if there is a way to counter the Protestant claim that—

the “brothers and sisters” of the Lord didn’t mean “cousins or relatives” (a Hebraism) because NT testament writers would have used the Koine Greek term for “cousins” instead of a Hebraism—

by countering with another example of a Hebraism (to know sexually) that had another Greek term that could have been use if they weren’t using Hebraisms.
 
somehow I have always linked Mary’s magnification of the Lord with the Incarnation. The Lord manifested physically through Mary required a soul that could magnify the Lord? Maybe?
 
You wouldn’t happen to know if the Hebrew “to know his wife” (meaning intercourse) had a koine Greek equivalent, would you?
Or did the Greek writers in NT times just write, “had sex with his wife.”
In Matthew 1:25 (“he knew her not until she had borne a son”) and Luke 1:34 (“seeing I know not a man”), the Greek word in question is *Ginosko, *which my Strong’s concondance defines as:
  1. to learn to know, come to know, get a knowledge of perceive, feel
    a. to become known
  2. to know, understand, perceive, have knowledge of
    a. to understand
    b. to know
  3. Jewish idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman
  4. to become acquainted with, to know
 
I’m seeing if there is a way to counter the Protestant claim that—

the “brothers and sisters” of the Lord didn’t mean “cousins or relatives” (a Hebraism) because NT testament writers would have used the Koine Greek term for “cousins” instead of a Hebraism—

by countering with another example of a Hebraism (to know sexually) that had another Greek term that could have been use if they weren’t using Hebraisms.
I’m not sure if you’ve thought of this counter but if Jesus had brothers and sisters, why did our Lord ask St. John to care for her? As Catholics we know what it means on another level but looking at it from a cultural standpoint, if Jesus had blood brothers and sisters based on Jewish tradition they would have been obligated to care for the Blessed Mother. But there is no mention of any brothers or sisters at the Crucifixion which would be odd indeed. What kind of child would let their mother stand at the foot of the cross of a sibling and not be there to support her? And then let a non-family member care for her? I don’t think so.

Catherine
 
What kind of child would let their mother stand at the foot of the cross of a sibling and not be there to support her? And then let a non-family member care for her? I don’t think so.
Catherine
I agree with you there! After all, what kind of family would let her stand alone – and who would let their brother die alone?
 
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