K
KathleenGee
Guest
Yes…an entrustment…
Well, this is true in the personal sense, however the difference here is in the group sense. What I mean by that is that the Church teaches that people that die in mortal sin go to Hell, people that die without mortal sin, venial sin or temporal punishment go to Heaven, and people that die without mortal sin but have some temporal punishment or venial sin go to Purgatory then Heaven. On the other hand, the Church teaches that we don’t know definitively what happens to unbaptized infants, though there are grounds to believe that they are saved (while also allowing the belief in Limbo of the Infants).With few exceptions, we really don’t declare anyone saved at death–infant or adult. We entrust them to God’s mercy and pray for their souls.
Though it is a hotly disputed topic, I think it is quite clear that St. Thomas Aquinas ascribes a natural desire for beatitude to the human soul. If that is true, then before the commission of deliberate sin I wonder if in some sense the baptism of desire is not common to all of us, inasmuch as there is no impediment to the elemental desire of the creature to be reunited with its Creator.Some people have tried to tell me a little child cannot reason and is thus unable to have a baptism of desire.
Actually, the Mormons do require willing consent. Mormons get baptized for the dead just in case the person accepts the gospel after death. The person would still have to choose between accepting their baptism or not. If someone has already heard the gospel of Mormonism before death and rejected it, the person’s opportunity to accept the Mormon gospel is restricted. Since a Mormon cannot know the disposition of the dead person to accept the gospel they do the baptism just in case the person can take advantage of it. There is no assurance the dead person will be saved in the Mormon Celestial Kingdom simply because a baptism for the dead is done by someone after death.Since infants in Catholic and some mainstream Protestant faiths do believe in, and practice, Baptism of infants as a means to Salvation, it seems logical to me that the desire for Baptism on the part of the parents could also constitute the desire for their child on behalf of them.
Does that make sense?
Though the child is too young to fully comprehend the Sacrament, perhaps the parents desire would substitue for that of the pre-term infant. That is my personal hope and prayer for the baby that I lost, though as someone above stated, I trust in the mercy of our Savior to leave no little ones behind.
My understanding of this situation is that since there is no dogmatic belief stated by the CC, people are free to believe as they see fit. Faith and trust in God should be the underlying belief in any unproclaimed areas of church teaching.
BTW, the Mormons believe in Baptism of the dead, (even that of total strangers to the proxy performing the temple rituals), which is totally contrary to the need for willing consent that many non-mainline and Evangelical Protestant churches believe. So theories abound on the subject. The bottom line is that we must trust that God will leave no one behind if he wants to. His desire is that all mankind be saved and reside with him. It is man who separates himself from the will of God.
[Baptism of desire is not the sacrament of baptism and yet applying the term “baptism” to the baptism of blood and baptism of desire has been a practice of the Church for centuries. Even if it is not a baptism in the strict sense, it nevertheless is a baptism in the analogical sense. Just as receiving the Eucharist by making a spiritual “Communion” is not a true Communion, but given the name “Spiritual Communion” in the analogical sense. In both cases, no one is denying the primary term. On the same point, St. Albert the Great says that the baptism of blood and the baptism of desire can only be called baptism when water baptism is lacking.[7]Can you please cite the Church source that states that our desire can initiate a baptism of desire for our unbaptized infant?
The Church itself teaches that there is no definitive teaching on what happens to unbaptized infants. It teaches that we have grounds for “prayerful hope” that they are saved somehow through God’s mercy, but not “sure knowledge”.
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/cti_documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070419_un-baptised-infants_en.html
Thank you, yes I’m aware of the teaching of baptism of desire. What I was wondering was if a Church source could be cited that states that the desire of the parents could initiate a baptism of desire for the infant. Your sources are talking about desiring baptism for oneself, not desiring baptism for another (i.e. parents for their unbaptized infant).[Baptism of desire is not the sacrament of baptism and yet applying the term “baptism” to the baptism of blood and baptism of desire has been a practice of the Church for centuries. Even if it is not a baptism in the strict sense, it nevertheless is a baptism in the analogical sense. Just as receiving the Eucharist by making a spiritual “Communion” is not a true Communion, but given the name “Spiritual Communion” in the analogical sense. In both cases, no one is denying the primary term. On the same point, St. Albert the Great says that the baptism of blood and the baptism of desire can only be called baptism when water baptism is lacking.[7]
In this sense, “Baptisms of desire” and “Baptism of blood” are not sacraments, but simply fulfill the requirements when the sacrament cannot be received due to extraordinary circumstances. Thus, one speaks metaphorically of “different Baptisms” yet they all obtain the same sanctifying grace. In fact, Our Lord Himself spoke of different Baptisms during His public ministry. There was “the Baptism wherewith I am to be baptized” (Lk. 12:50), referring to a Baptism of blood, which was His crucifixion. Describing the descent of the Holy Ghost on Pentecost, he says “For John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost, not many days hence” (Act. 1:5).
Concerning the necessity of the sacraments for salvation Peter Lombard (1160 AD) points out that, “God did not bind his power by the Sacraments.”[8] In other words, God is not bound by the sacraments to draw men to heaven (Cf. Job 33:15-18). St. Thomas Aquinas affirms the same as he points out “It belongs to the excellence of Christ power, that He (Christ) could bestow the sacramental effect without conferring the exterior sacrament.”[9] ]
Exerpt from
www.catholicapologetics.info/modernproblems/…/bapdesire.htm -
and this one from right here at CAF…www.catholic.com/library/Necessity_of_Baptism.asp -
Thus the Catechism of the Catholic Church states: “Those who die for the faith, those who are catechumens, and all those who, without knowing of the Church but acting under the inspiration of grace, seek God sincerely and strive to fulfill his will, are saved even if they have not been baptized” (CCC 1281; the salvation of unbaptized infants is also possible under this system; cf. CCC 1260–1, 1283).
So are we to not teach the truth because someone will take it and twist it? They do that already. We know it is true that a murderer doesn’t inherit the Kingdom of Heaven, so what good would it do for them to further justify their murdering, which they already try to do?I am not saying that anyone here is personally advocating the following, but can you see that it might be perceived by some --and to be dangerous?
IF we had an authoritative belief that unborn infants who died automatically went to heaven. .
Can you see the people who would then argue that abortion wasn’t so bad? I mean, sure the babies die but if they go to heaven, then the ‘end result’ winds up being all happy.
Can you see then the people arguing for euthanasia of born children who were born severely ill, if 'they’ll wind up in heaven anyway?"
No, Jonathon, and I didn’t advocate not teaching the truth by any means.So are we to not teach the truth because someone will take it and twist it? They do that already. We know it is true that a murderer doesn’t inherit the Kingdom of Heaven, so what good would it do for them to further justify their murdering, which they already try to do?
But that is not the teaching of the Church.There is a part of me that believes we are born into original sin, but that Christ’s atonement takes care of that for everyone without any act of our own. That doesn’t negate the need for infant baptism because it is the way to enter the life of the Church and receive the grace that comes from that life. It would seem to me the reach of Christ’s atonement has priority over original sin.
Is this what LDS teach? I feel like I’ve heard them say before that Christ’s atonement took care of original sin, hence why they believe that infants are saved.There is a part of me that believes we are born into original sin, but that Christ’s atonement takes care of that for everyone without any act of our own. That doesn’t negate the need for infant baptism because it is the way to enter the life of the Church and receive the grace that comes from that life. It would seem to me the reach of Christ’s atonement has priority over original sin.
Right, I think that’s what the LDS church teaches.But that is not the teaching of the Church.
The Church doesn’t really seem to have a teaching on this subject. It says it doesn’t know. That gives me the right to state what I believe.But that is not the teaching of the Church.
No, it doesn’t. The Church DOES have a teaching; the teaching is that the unbaptized do not go to heaven but that God may save them.The Church doesn’t really seem to have a teaching on this subject. It says it doesn’t know. That gives me the right to state what I believe.
If the Church says they might be saved without baptism, I can posit how that might work. And it seems to me that Christ’s atonement is as good a place to start as anywhere. I can state as my belief they will be saved in heaven just as some continue to state their opinion they believe in Limbo. I admit the possibility that I may be wrong, but I can’t find any valid argument to believe that I am wrong.No, it doesn’t. The Church DOES have a teaching; the teaching is that the unbaptized do not go to heaven but that God may save them.
What YOU are saying is something totally different. You’re saying that Christ’s sacrifice DID save them and there is no ‘need’ then for baptism to save, but that it only confers grace.
That is not the teaching of the Church.