R
runningdude
Guest
My understanding is that prior to the institution of Baptism there was natural marriage. Following the institution of Baptism, marriage was raised to the sacramental level. But what happened to natural marriage for the unbaptized. I know that it still exists, but has the natural of marriage changed for them? Is divorce, for instance still possible among the unbaptized?
Baptism of course not only erases all sin and temporal punishment, but also marks the soul for life. But, does Baptism allow these ordinary events of daily life become extra-ordinary means of commuting God’s Grace?
Asked another, more textured way, is Baptism (given grace by Christ’s death and resurrection) alone what transforms humanity? For instance, Jewish law permitted divorce (and remarriage???). They had a natural marriage, but marriage today is considered insoluble. **Is divorce still possible among the unbaptized, or did something other than Baptism also transform human nature? **
Let me explain my confusion: marriage is fundamental to human nature. The first two humans on Earth were a married couple, and marriage is a state of union that all couples could enter into.
So, if divorce were possible under the old law, then the so called “natural marriage” must have been “dissoluble” in its “natural” state in the time before Christ’s Death and Resurrection.
Baptism of course renders marriage indissolubly sacramental, but my question is, did Christ change human nature such that all marriage is indissoluble, and if he did, did he do so, then what extraordinary means do you believe he used other than Baptism?
Baptism of course not only erases all sin and temporal punishment, but also marks the soul for life. But, does Baptism allow these ordinary events of daily life become extra-ordinary means of commuting God’s Grace?
Asked another, more textured way, is Baptism (given grace by Christ’s death and resurrection) alone what transforms humanity? For instance, Jewish law permitted divorce (and remarriage???). They had a natural marriage, but marriage today is considered insoluble. **Is divorce still possible among the unbaptized, or did something other than Baptism also transform human nature? **
Let me explain my confusion: marriage is fundamental to human nature. The first two humans on Earth were a married couple, and marriage is a state of union that all couples could enter into.
So, if divorce were possible under the old law, then the so called “natural marriage” must have been “dissoluble” in its “natural” state in the time before Christ’s Death and Resurrection.
Baptism of course renders marriage indissolubly sacramental, but my question is, did Christ change human nature such that all marriage is indissoluble, and if he did, did he do so, then what extraordinary means do you believe he used other than Baptism?
