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Generic_Man
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A point I’m arguing is that gay marriges are fake because hey have no creation. Someone said that this must be so too with a marrige that has someone who is infertile. What is the response?
A response to that is that just because a few marriages between a man and woman have infertility issues doesn’t detract from the reality that most all of them Do produce life. They not only have the “parts” that enable them TO conceive, but that a man and a woman CAN produce life and DO produce life and that same sex marriages never do shows which one is valid and which one that is not. Man/woman couples do produce life because it is part of the natural law or the natural moral law of God.A point I’m arguing is that gay marriges are fake because hey have no creation. Someone said that this must be so too with a marrige that has someone who is infertile. What is the response?
Where are these facts coming from? Would you cite the source? Are you suggesting that heterosexuals never contract/transmit venereal diseses?the average lifespan of a homosexual male in 38, only 2% live past 60, and their “lifestyle” comes with a long list of venereal diseases.
Your initial premise is flawed. A marriage is “fake” if it is not a Sacramental convenant before God. You don’t need to provide reasons, just that God established marriage, God established the Church, and the Church says “No,” to the validity in God’s Eyes of ALL civil marriages regardless of whether they are straight or gay. That is the bottom line. No more explanation is needed. Baring children is an attempt to justify the Church’s stance, but the Church needs no “worldly terms” justification, as we answer to God, not the world.A point I’m arguing is that gay marriges are fake because hey have no creation. Someone said that this must be so too with a marrige that has someone who is infertile. What is the response?
Frank, this is entirely fasle. The Church absolutely affirms non-Catholic and non-Christian marriages as valid. Such marriages are not “fake”.Your initial premise is flawed. A marriage is “fake” if it is not a Sacramental convenant before God. A civil marriage is just as invalid whether it is hetero or homo,
Failure of individuals to live out their marriage committment does not invalidate marriage.In the case of many Protestant denominations, however, they are no less worldly than the worldliest of the worldly when it comes to divorce and remarriage for any reason, but would still be quick to point fingers at gay marriage.
Frank, sometimes you seem to be very knowledgeable of Church teaching, and then sometimes you seem to just be completely mixed up and confused. This is one of the cases where you are confused.Allowing civil marriage(taking God out of marriage) and then trying to place Him back into it to stop gays from marrying is hypocracy of the worst kind.
Hear, hear! What an excellent point! For me it raises the whole “take the log out of your eye” issue. We focus way too much on what gays “might” be doing instead of noticing that now more than 50 percent of all marriages end in divorce.While the Catholic Church has remained true to God in terms of rules about marriage and remarriage; America, as a nation has not. Just my opinion on the issue.
Perhaps, “fake,” a term I borrowed from the OP, was not the best choice of words. Nevertheless, if the Church considered civil marriages to be valid covenants before God, then how come they can be so easily annulled? An annulment can only be granted in a situation where the Church has determined that no true marriage has existed in the first place, thus making the civil “marriage” invalid.Frank, this is entirely fasle. The Church absolutely affirms non-Catholic and non-Christian marriages as valid. Such marriages are not “fake”.
Failure of individuals to live out their marriage committment does not invalidate marriage.
Same-sex “marriage” is in no way equivalent.
Frank, sometimes you seem to be very knowledgeable of Church teaching, and then sometimes you seem to just be completely mixed up and confused. This is one of the cases where you are confused.
A declaration of nullity is neither easier nor more difficult to obtain since the same Church Law applies to them as to Catholic marriages, excluding Catholic form.Nevertheless, if the Church considered civil marriages to be valid covenants before God, then how come they can be so easily annulled?
There is not a one-to-one correspondence between civil marriage and nullity. It seems you are implying that a civil marriage is null by virtue of *being *a civil marriage, you are incorrect.An annulment can only be granted in a situation where the Church has determined that no true marriage has existed in the first place, thus making the civil “marriage” invalid.
This is accurate. But, a civil marriage is neither adulterous nor invalid.I never said that failure to live out marriage commitments invalidates marriage. My point was that adulterous remarriage is just as invalid in the Church’s eyes as gay marriage
Valid does not mean Sacramental. Those terms are not synonyms. A marriage does not have to be sacramental to be valid.please provide some sort of documented(from the Catechism or elsewhere) proof that the Church considers civil marriages between pagans to be valid(and therefore inseparable) Sacramental covenants before God.
This sounds inaccurate to me. I am under the impression that a civil marriage is automatically annulled(provided that a civil divorce also took place) in that the Church never granted that marriage. There may be exceptions to that, although I am unaware of them. How are you defining the term, “valid?” A civil marriage is only “valid” to the Church in the sense that someone who is currently in a civil marriage is NOT free to marry in the Church, unless said person is marrying the same spouse as in the civil marriage. Valid is a Sacramental covenant in God’s Eyes. To have a civil marriage is to take God out of the marriage. How could the Church possibly consider that to be valid, when the very definition of marriage is a sacramental covenant before God between one man and one woman, that no man may separate until death due them part? It is not two people who appear before a judge and make a civil contract. Marriage is a covenantal union before God, not a legal contract before an Earthly judge.A declaration of nullity is neither easier nor more difficult to obtain since the same Church Law applies to them as to Catholic marriages, excluding Catholic form.
There is not a one-to-one correspondence between civil marriage and nullity. It seems you are implying that a civil marriage is null by virtue of *being *a civil marriage, you are incorrect.
Civil marriages can, and many are, valid. If they take place between two baptized non-Catholics they are also sacramental.
Valid does not mean Sacramental. Those terms are not synonyms. A marriage does not have to be sacramental to be valid.
That is only true for a Catholic, as only Catholics are required to marry in the Catholic form.This sounds inaccurate to me. I am under the impression that a civil marriage is automatically annulled(provided that a civil divorce also took place) in that the Church never granted that marriage.
The same way that the Church defines it.How are you defining the term, “valid?”
Ask the Church. The man and woman confer the Sacrament on each other-- therefore two baptized persons who give consent are in a valid marriage. The same holds true for non-baptized persons, they marry validly. They do not marry sacramentally.To have a civil marriage is to take God out of the marriage. How could the Church possibly consider that to be valid, when the very definition of marriage is a sacramental covenant before God between one man and one woman, that no man may separate until death due them part?
You are confusing two things.If non-Catholic Christian marriages were automatically considered valid by the Church, then why do Catholics who marry Protestants in Protestant churches by Protestant ministers first need a letter of authority from their Catholic Bishop in order to make the marriage valid in God’s Eyes?
Because canonical form is a requirement of Catholics to marry validly.Why, if such a letter is obtained does it later make an annulment that much more difficult than if no letter was sought or granted?
Um, no I am not wrong.1ke, no offense, but I think you are totally off on this one. Again, provide me a statement from the Catechism that says I’m wrong, and I’ll admit it, but otherwise, I think I’m right on this.
Where can I acquire this “Canon Law on the Marriage,” that you are referring to? Is there an internet link?That is only true for a Catholic, as only Catholics are required to marry in the Catholic form.
We are not talking about Catholics. We are talking about non-Catholic Christians and the unbaptized.
The same way that the Church defines it.
Ask the Church. The man and woman confer the Sacrament on each other-- therefore two baptized persons who give consent are in a valid marriage. The same holds true for non-baptized persons, they marry validly. They do not marry sacramentally.
You are confusing two things.
(1) Two non-Catholic Christians marrying. They marry validly, as I have just said they confer the sacrament, not the priest, pastor, or judge.
(2) A Catholic marrying a non-Catholic. They must receive a dispensation from FORM because they are Catholics. Non-Catholics are not bound to this form, therefore they marry validly when they marry in their own denominations or in front of a judge.
Because canonical form is a requirement of Catholics to marry validly.
Um, no I am not wrong.
Please read Canon Law on the Marriage.
Yes, Canon Law is available on the internet on the Vatican website.Where can I acquire this “Canon Law on the Marriage,” that you are referring to? Is there an internet link?
Yes, that is exactly what I am saying.So, are you suggesting that according to the Catholic Church, if two baptised protestants marry, get divorced, and then one of them remarries, the remarriage places that remarried couple in a perpetual state of adultery, even if their denomination doesn’t teach that???
Nope.I thought such rules only applied to validly married, divorced, and then invalidly remarried Catholics.
Do you have a link that states things in American English layman’s terms?Here is a great post explaining the concepts and applicable canon law. It is by cameron_lansing who is a canon lawyer.
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=2660455&postcount=9
The “the” is a typo. The Code of Canon Law has a section on Marriage and a section on the tribunal nullity process.“Canon Law on the Marriage”
That is why I recommended the book Annulment: The Wedding That Was, by Michael Smith Foster. It is an explanation in layman’s terms.Do you have a link that states things in American English layman’s terms?