need help!!

[t68ware]

I am being questioned by a Protestand friend of mine that if Mary was conceived without sin and was sinless, why did she have to give the appropriate sacrifice at the temple after her days of purification? It is my understanding that sacrifice is for expiation of sins, but since Mary was sinless, why the sacrifice?

 

[GeorgeSword]

I believe that I read somewhere where it said that it was due to her having handled blood.

 

[Lead_Me_Home]

I am not an apologist this is just my thought on the subject.

This was keeping to the law of Moses. Why did Jesus obey many of the laws of Moses during his earthly life? Because he was obedient to God even to the point of death.

 

[NHInsider]

I am being questioned by a Protestand friend of mine that if Mary was conceived without sin and was sinless, why did she have to give the appropriate sacrifice at the temple after her days of purification? It is my understanding that sacrifice is for expiation of sins, but since Mary was sinless, why the sacrifice?

I am away from home and without reference books but my recollection is that the sacrifice mentioned in the Scripture (“two turtle doves”) is the sacrifice to “buy back” a firstborn son, who under the law belongs to the Lord. Actually the sacrifice specified is a lamb, but two turtledoves is specified as a substitute for those too poor to provide a lamb.

And yes, the “purification” is from ritual uncleanness from the passing of blood, not due to sin. Can’t prove or disprove her state of grace from that one.

 

[r4j]

I haven’t come across this in my studies but I would vote for obedience. You can be sure is was not for sinning.

 

[Sancto_Spiritu]

I am being questioned by a Protestand friend of mine that if Mary was conceived without sin and was sinless, why did she have to give the appropriate sacrifice at the temple after her days of purification? It is my understanding that sacrifice is for expiation of sins, but since Mary was sinless, why the sacrifice?

She was following the law. She perhaps could’ve been ostracized had she gone around touting that she was free of sin and didn’t need to sacrifice.

Your Protestant friend needs to examine cultural context, something Protestant analysis of the Bible typically lacks.

 

[redrosetea]

I am being questioned by a Protestand friend of mine that if Mary was conceived without sin and was sinless, why did she have to give the appropriate sacrifice at the temple after her days of purification? It is my understanding that sacrifice is for expiation of sins, but since Mary was sinless, why the sacrifice?

Because Mary and Joseph and Jesus were all observant Jews and that was what was demanded of them by the law of the old testament

It might have had to do with a ritual cleansing …It wasn’t because she was sinful…and remember Christ was also circumcised according to the law

 

[thunderballs75]

I am away from home and without reference books but my recollection is that the sacrifice mentioned in the Scripture (“two turtle doves”) is the sacrifice to “buy back” a firstborn son, who under the law belongs to the Lord. Actually the sacrifice specified is a lamb, but two turtledoves is specified as a substitute for those too poor to provide a lamb.

And yes, the “purification” is from ritual uncleanness from the passing of blood, not due to sin. Can’t prove or disprove her state of grace from that one.

This is right.